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Code d'Examen: 922-093
Nom d'Examen: Nortel (Communication Server 1000 Rls.5.0 System Admin and Mgmt)
Questions et réponses: 25 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer has just deployed a new Communication Server 1000 Rls. 5.0 system. You have been
instructed to change the default Level 2 password to comply with the company's security strategy. What
level password must you use to change the default Level 2 password?
A. Level 1 Password (PW1)
B. Level 2 Password (PW2)
C. Level 3 Password (PW3)
D. Limited Access to Overlays Password (LAPW)
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 5.0 system and has requested the addition of
two new passwords for general service personnel. If communicating with the system using the Command
Line Interface (CLI), which Overlay (LD) would you use to add passwords, assuming you have the
appropriate access permissions?
A. LD 15
B. LD 17
C. LD 22
D. LD 117
Answer: B

Nortel   922-093   922-093   922-093 examen

NO.3 A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 5.0 system. When adding a digital telephone
in LD 11, what four fields comprise the Terminal Number (TN) for this type of system?
A. CO - DID - FX - RAN
B. Loop - Shelf - Card - Unit
C. Power - Memory - CPU - UDATA
D. Tone - Transmitter - Detector - Card
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 5.0 system deployed. If using the Command
Line Interface
(CLI) to communicate with the system, what command is used to log into the system?
A. LOGI
B. REQ
C. LOGO
D. START
Answer:A

certification Nortel   922-093 examen   922-093   922-093   922-093

NO.5 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0 system at their site. Element
Manager is not yet available. When using the Command Line Interface (CLI) to configure the system, you
encounter the following system message: OVL0000. What is the meaning of this system message?
A. A telephone is disabled.
B. There is a checksum failure.
C. A user has already logged into the system.
D. The requested program is not in the tape directory.
Answer: C

Nortel   922-093   922-093   922-093   certification 922-093

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Code d'Examen: FN0-100
Nom d'Examen: Foundry Network (Foundry Networks CNE)
Questions et réponses: 82 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following are true regarding the highest priority queue on Foundry
chassis devices?
A. qosp0 ?This queue corresponds to 802.1p prioritization levels 0 and 1 and Foundry
priority levels 0 and 1.
B. qosp0 ?This queue corresponds to 802.1p prioritization levels 6 and 7 and Foundry
priority levels 6 and 7.
C. qosp3 ?This queue corresponds to 802.1p prioritization levels 0 and 1 and Foundry
priority levels 0 and 1.
D. qosp3 ?This queue corresponds to 802.1p prioritization levels 6 and 7 and Foundry
priority levels 6 and 7.
Answer: D

Foundry Network examen   FN0-100   FN0-100

NO.2 What transport layer protocol provides a connection oriented service?
A. UDP
B. STP
C. TCP
D. ARP
Answer: C

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NO.3 What does a Foundry ACL ID identify?
A. An ACL as standard or extended
B. Number of entries.
C. A collection of individual ACL entries
Answer: C

Foundry Network examen   FN0-100   FN0-100   FN0-100   FN0-100

NO.4 Which broadcast and pruning multicast protocol delivers IP multicast data to its
intended receivers? (Select all that apply)
A. PIM
B. ICMP
C. DVMRP
D. IGMP
Answer: A, C

Foundry Network   certification FN0-100   FN0-100 examen

NO.5 Foundry route health injection feature supports health checks for which of the
following?
A. All TCP traffic
B. All TCP and UDP traffic
C. HTTP only
D. HTTP, POP3, and SNMP
Answer: C

Foundry Network examen   FN0-100   certification FN0-100

NO.6 The show configuration command on a Foundry device will show the running
config.
A. T
B. F
Answer: B

Foundry Network   FN0-100   FN0-100 examen   FN0-100   FN0-100 examen   FN0-100

NO.7 An OSPF interface configured to be passive will perform which of the following?
A. send and receive OSPF updates
B. receive but not forward OSPF updates
C. will not send or receive OSPF updates
D. will not receive but forward OSPF updates
Answer: C

Foundry Network   FN0-100   certification FN0-100   FN0-100 examen

NO.8 Foundry trunking groups on L3 routers load share based on destination IP/IPX
address.
A. T
B. F
Answer: A

Foundry Network   FN0-100   FN0-100   FN0-100   FN0-100

NO.9 Which Foundry CLI command is used to copy the system image from the secondary
flash area to the primary?
A. copy flash primary
B. copy slot1 primary
C. copy secondary primary
D. copy flash flash primary
Answer: D

Foundry Network   FN0-100 examen   certification FN0-100   FN0-100 examen

NO.10 What feature allows a switch to detect and switch web traffic to a local cache server
within the network?
A. http header hashing
B. SSL session ID switching
C. transparent cache switching
D. cache route optimization
Answer: C

certification Foundry Network   FN0-100 examen   FN0-100 examen   FN0-100

NO.11 Exhibit:
The diagram shows an OSPF network with no designated router (DR) and no
backup designated router (BDR). Which of the following statements identifiy which
routers will be selected DR and BDR?
A. Router C is DR, Router B is BDR
B. Router B is DR, Router A is BDR
C. Router B is BDR, Router A is DR
D. Router A is DR, Router C is BDR
Answer: B

Foundry Network   FN0-100   FN0-100

NO.12 Which routing protocol is used on the Internet to route traffic between Autonomous
Systems and to maintain loop-free routing?
A. OSPF
B. IBGP
C. BGP4
D. RIP
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is the maximum hop count allowed by RIP?
A. 15
B. 10
C. 255
D. no limit
Answer: A

Foundry Network   FN0-100 examen   FN0-100 examen   FN0-100   FN0-100 examen

NO.14 Which Foundry CLI command is used to provide privileged user mode?
A. access
B. enable
C. super-user
D. config t
Answer: B

Foundry Network   certification FN0-100   FN0-100

NO.15 Which of the following commands will correctly configure a Foundry Layer 3
Switch to learn routes from all neighbors except 192.168.1.170?
A. BigIron(config-rip-router)# neighbor 2 deny 192.168.1.170
B. BigIron(config-rip-router)# neighbor 1024 permit any BigIron(config-rip-router)#
neighbor 2 deny 192.168.1.170
C. BigIron(config-rip-router)# neighbor deny 192.168.1.170 BigIron(config-rip-router)#
neighbor 1024 permit any
D. BigIron(config-rip-router)# neighbor 2 deny 192.168.1.170
BigIron(config-rip-router)# neighbor 1024 permit any
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which Foundry SLB predictor uses a percentage distribution?
A. round robin
B. weighted
C. least connections
D. delay
Answer: B

Foundry Network examen   FN0-100   certification FN0-100   certification FN0-100

NO.17 Which Foundry CLI command should be used to add an unencrypted community
string?
A. snmp-server community private rw
B. snmp-server community 0 private rw
C. snmp-server community 1 private rw
D. snmp-server community clr private rw
Answer: B

certification Foundry Network   FN0-100   certification FN0-100   FN0-100 examen

NO.18 The appletalk echo protocol (AEP) is equivalent to which IP protocol?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. ARP
D. ICMP
Answer: D

Foundry Network   certification FN0-100   certification FN0-100   FN0-100 examen   FN0-100

NO.19 Which STP bridge parameter manages the interval a bridge will wait for receipt of
a hello packet before initiating a topology change?
A. priority
B. forward delay
C. maximum age
D. hello time
Answer: C

Foundry Network   FN0-100   certification FN0-100

NO.20 What is the difference between TACACS+ and TACACS?
A. TACACS is an enhancement to TACACS+
B. TACACS is TCP based and TACACS+ is UDP based
C. TACACS+ provides encryption and uses TCP.
Answer: C

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Le meilleur matériel de formation examen Zend-Technologies 200-500

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Code d'Examen: 200-500
Nom d'Examen: Zend-Technologies (Zend PHP 5 Certification)
Questions et réponses: 219 Q&As

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NO.1 Which piece of code will return the ASCII value of a character?
A. (int)'t';
B. ord('t');
C. to_ascii('t');
D. chr('t');
Answer: B

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NO.2 When a class is defined as final it:
A. Can no longer be extended by other classes.
B. Means methods in the class are not over-loadable.
C. Cannot be defined as such, final is only applicable to object methods.
D. Is no longer iteratable.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) Class constants are public
b) Class constants are being inherited
c) Class constants can omit initialization (default to NULL)
d) Class constants can be initialized by consts
A. a)
B. b)
C. c)
D. d)
Answer: C

Zend-Technologies   200-500 examen   certification 200-500

NO.4 What is the output of the following script?
1 <?php
2 class a
3 {
4 public $val;
5 }
6
7 function renderVal (a $a)
8 {
9 if ($a) {
10 echo $a->val;
11 }
12 }
13
14 renderVal (null);
15 ?>
A. A syntax error in the function declaration line
B. An error, because null is not an instance of 'a'
C. Nothing, because a null value is being passed to renderVal()
D. NULL
Answer: B

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NO.5 An HTML form contains this form element:
<input type="image" name="myImage" src="image.png" />
The user clicks on the image to submit the form. How can you now access the relative coordinates of the
mouse click?
A. $_IMAGE['myImage']['x'] and $_IMAGE['myImage']['y']
B. $_POST['myImage']['x'] and $_POST['myImage']['x']
C. $_POST['myImage.x'] and $_POST['myImage.y']
D. $_POST['myImage_x'] and $_POST['myImage_y']
Answer: D

certification Zend-Technologies   200-500   200-500   200-500 examen

NO.6 Which of the following filtering techniques prevents cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities?
A. Strip all occurrences of the string script.
B. Strip all occurrences of the string javascript.
C. Enable magic_quotes_gpc.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

Zend-Technologies   certification 200-500   200-500 examen

NO.7 What is the output of the following code?
<code>
class test {
public $value = 0;
function test() {
$this->value = 1;
}
function __construct() {
$this->value = 2;
}
}
$object = new test();
echo $object->value;
A. 2
B. 1
C. 0
D. 3
E. No Output, PHP will generate an error message.
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies   200-500   200-500

NO.8 Which options do you have in PHP to set the expiry date of a session?
A. Set the session.duration directive in php.ini
B. Set session cookie expiry date locally via session_set_cookie_params()
C. Set session expiry date locally via session_cache_expire()
D. None of the above
Answer: D

Zend-Technologies   200-500   certification 200-500   certification 200-500

NO.9 Type hinting in PHP allows the identification of the following variable types: (Choose 2)
A. String
B. Integer
C. Array
D. Any class or interface type
Answer: CD

Zend-Technologies   certification 200-500   certification 200-500   200-500

NO.10 Given the following code, what is correct?
function f(stdClass &$x = NULL) { $x = 42;
}
$z = new stdClass;
f($z);
var_dump($z);
A. Error: Typehints cannot be NULL
B. Error: Typehints cannot be references
C. Result is NULL
D. Result is object of type stdClass
E. Result is 42
Answer: E

Zend-Technologies examen   200-500   200-500   200-500   200-500 examen

NO.11 You are creating an application that generates invoices in a variety of formats, including PDF, ODS
and HTML. Each of these formats is represented as a PHP class in your application. While some of the
operations can be performed on all of the different formats (such as saving and loading), other operations
may be specific to one or two of the formats (such as setting as read only). Which design pattern should
you use for this application?
A. Adapter
B. Factory
C. MVC
D. Singleton
Answer: B

Zend-Technologies   200-500   certification 200-500

NO.12 What is the output of the following code?
echo 0x33, ' monkeys sit on ', 011, ' trees.';
A. 33 monkeys sit on 11 trees.
B. 51 monkeys sit on 9 trees.
C. monkeys sit on trees.
D. 0x33 monkeys sit on 011 trees.
Answer: B

certification Zend-Technologies   200-500   200-500 examen

NO.13 What is the content of $c after the following code has executed?
$a = 2;
$b = 3;
$c = ($a++ * ++$b);
A. 0
B. 5
C. 8
D. 4
Answer:

NO.14 REST is a(n) ...
A. Web service protocol similar to SOAP with a strict XML schema.
B. Principle to exchange information using XML and HTTP.
C. API to get information from social networking sites.
Answer: B

Zend-Technologies   200-500 examen   certification 200-500

NO.15 Identify the security vulnerability in the following example:
1.<?php
2 echo "Welcome, {$_POST['name']}.";
3 ?>
A. SQL Injection
B. Cross-Site Scripting
C. Remote Code Injection
D. None of the above
Answer: B

Zend-Technologies examen   200-500   200-500   200-500

NO.16 Transactions can be used to: (Choose 2)
A. Recover from errors in case of a power outage or a failure in the SQL connection
B. Ensure that the data is properly formatted
C. Ensure that either all statements are performed properly, or that none of them are.
D. Recover from user errors
Answer: AC

Zend-Technologies   200-500   certification 200-500   200-500 examen   certification 200-500   200-500

NO.17 How many times will the function counter() be executed in the following code?
function counter($start, &$stop)
{
if ($stop > $start)
{
return;
}
counter($start--, ++$stop);
}
$start = 5;
$stop = 2;
counter($start, $stop);
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C

Zend-Technologies   certification 200-500   200-500

NO.18 You analyze the code of a collegue and see, it uses the function strcasecmp. You try it out to see what
it does and use the following function call:
strcasecmp('hello my dear!', 'Hello my DEAR!');
The function call returns "0". What does that mean?
A. String 1 is less than string 2.
B. The strings are considered equal.
C. String 2 is less than string 1.
D. The strings have equal length.
Answer: B

Zend-Technologies   certification 200-500   certification 200-500

NO.19 Given the following code, what will be the value of $a?
$a = array('a', 'b');
array_push($a, array(1, 2));
A. array('a', 'b', 1, 2)
B. array(1, 2, 'a', 'b')
C. array(array(1, 2), 'a', 'b')
D. None of the above
Answer: D

Zend-Technologies   200-500   certification 200-500   certification 200-500

NO.20 How many elements does the $matches array contain after the following function call is performed?
preg_match('/

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Code d'Examen: FM0-303
Nom d'Examen: FileMaker (Developer Essentials for FileMaker 9)
Questions et réponses: 335 Q&As

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NO.1 How many simultaneous Instant Web Publishing sessions can FileMaker Server 9 Advanced host?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 125
D. 250
Answer: B

FileMaker   FM0-303   FM0-303   certification FM0-303

NO.2 Which of the following is a likely reason why a file converted from FileMaker Pro 6 to FileMaker Pro 9
may open slowly?
A. Use of repeating fields
B. Obsolete data sources
C. Using outdated script steps
D. Having to resolve 2-digit year dates
Answer: B

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NO.3 In FileMaker Pro 9, which two statements about portals are true? (Choose two.)
A. Container fields can be placed in portals.
B. The initial row setting of a portal can be set by a script.
C. A sort order applied to a portal overrides any sort order set up for the relationship.
D. If there are multiple portals on a layout, the Go to Portal Row [First] script step will activate the portal
closest to the top, left corner of the layout.
Answer: AC

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NO.4 Which three of the following are supported operating systems for FileMaker Pro 9 and FileMaker Pro 9
Advanced? (Choose three.)
A. Mac OS X 10.4.8
B. Mac OS X 10.3.9
C. Windows Vista Ultimate
D. Windows XP Professional (Service Pack 1)
E. Windows XP Professional (Service Pack 2)
Answer: ACE

FileMaker   FM0-303   certification FM0-303   FM0-303

NO.5 Which two statements are true about the [Guest] account that is included by default when creating a
new FileMaker Pro 9 database? (Choose two.)
A. It is not enabled.
B. It cannot be deleted.
C. It can log in without entering a password.
D. It can log in using Instant Web Publishing without entering either a username or password.
Answer: AB

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NO.6 Which two of the following are true about the Data Viewer in FileMaker Pro 9 Advanced? (Choose two.)
A. It always displays the values of all global variables defined in a file.
B. It can only be accessed by users with the [Full Access] privilege set.
C. It can be used to manually change the value of a variable during debugging of a script.
D. It automatically displays the values of fields referenced by calculations used in the currently running
script.
Answer: CD

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NO.7 In order to retain FileMaker Pro 6 database behavior, FileMaker Pro 9 may insert a Select Window
script step after which two of the following script steps as the file is converted? (Choose two.)
A. Open File
B. Go To Layout
C. Perform Script
D. Refresh Window
E. Go to Related Record
Answer: CE

FileMaker examen   FM0-303   FM0-303

NO.8 Script A:
Allow User Abort [Off]
Go To Layout ["Layout1"]
Pause/Resume Script [Indefinitely]
Perform Script ["Script B"]
Go To Layout ["Layout2"]
Pause/Resume Script [Indefinitely]
Script B:
Go To Layout ["Layout3"]
Pause/Resume Script [Indefinitely]
Allow User Abort [On]
Go to Layout "Layout4"]
Pause/Resume Script [Indefinitely]
When Script A is run, on which layout(s) will both the "Continue" and "Cancel" buttons be displayed
during the Pause/Resume script steps? (Assume the Status Area is visible.)
A. Layout4
B. Layout1 and Layout3
C. Layout1 and Layout2
D. Layout2 and Layout4
E. Layout1, Layout2, and Layout3
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following are supported in FileMaker 9 as External ODBC Data Sources?
A. Oracle 10g, Oracle 11g, SQL Server Express, SQL Server 2005, MySQL 5.0 Community Edition
B. Oracle 9g, Oracle 10g, SQL Server 2000, SQL Server 2005, MySQL 5.0 Community Edition
C. Oracle 10g, Oracle 11g, SQL Server 2000, SQL Server 2005, MySQL 5.0 Community Edition
D. Oracle 9g, Oracle 10g, SQL Server 2000, SQL Server 2005, MySQL 5.0 Enterprise Server
Answer: B

FileMaker   certification FM0-303   FM0-303

NO.10 What are the theoretical maximum limits of file size and record count in FileMaker Pro 9?
A. 8 gigabytes file size and 64 billion records
B. 64 gigabytes file size and 64 billion records
C. 2 gigabytes file size and 100 million records
D. 8 terabytes file size and 64 quadrillion records
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which three statements are true about FileMaker Pro 9 Advanced? (Choose three.)
A. It can import tables directly from a FileMaker Pro 8 file.
B. It can import tables directly from a FileMaker Pro 6 file.
C. It will retain internal IDs for fields when importing tables.
D. It can copy/paste script steps, scripts, fields, and tables.
E. It can import relationships and table occurrences from FileMaker Pro 9 files.
Answer: ACD

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
A user can install FileMaker Server, the Web Publishing Engine, and all of the associated software
components on the same machine as the web server. Which two of the following groups of ports must
be open to provide database services, web services, and administrative services via the Admin Console?
(Choose two.)
A. 80, 5003, 16004
B. 80, 5003, 16000
C. 5003, 5006, 16014
D. 16001,16016, 16018
E. 16001, 16004, 16007
Answer: BD

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NO.13 For FileMaker Pro 9 files that are opened (i.e. to resolve a relationship) and where the window
remains hidden, which statement is true about a script set to perform when opening this file?
A. It will not execute.
B. It will execute as soon as the file is opened.
C. It will execute as soon as the file's first window is drawn.
D. It will execute when the file is opened only if the script has the run script with full access privileges
option enabled.
Answer: C

FileMaker   FM0-303   FM0-303   FM0-303

NO.14 Which two statements are correct regarding the FileMaker Pro 9 batch conversion process when
converting files from FileMaker Pro 6? (Choose two.)
A. A .fp7 extension is added to filenames that do not have file extensions.
B. Existing files are automatically suffixed with 'Old' (i.e., Customer Old.fp5).
C. A prompt is displayed asking where the converted files should be created.
D. Multiple files converted at the same time will be copied into one file with multiple tables.
E. A solution organized with files in nested folders should be converted one level at a time starting with the
files in the highest level / folder.
Answer: AC

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NO.15 When running FileMaker Server 9 Advanced in an environment that uses a firewall, which ports, at a
minimum, need to be open for FileMaker Pro 9 and FileMaker Server Admin Console to communicate
with FileMaker Server Advanced across the firewall from an end user machine?
A. Ports 5003, 5006, 50003
B. Ports 2399, 5003, 16000
C. Ports 5003, 16000, 16001
D. Ports 16000, 16001,16004
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which software is required to share FileMaker data via ODBC to remote clients?
A. FileMaker Server 9
B. FileMaker Pro 9 Advanced
C. FileMaker Server 9 Advanced
D. Internet Information Server (IIS)
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is the maximum number of bytes available in a FileMaker Pro 9 text field?
A. 64 megabytes
B. 1 gigabyte
C. 2 gigabytes
D. 4 gigabytes
E. Limited only by disk space
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which three of the following are supported operating systems for FileMaker Server 9 and Filemaker
Server 9 Advanced? (Choose three.)
A. Mac OS X Server 10.4.9
B. Mac OS X Server 10.3.9
C. Windows NT Server SP4
D. Windows XP Professional SP2
E. Windows 2003 Server Standard Edition SP2
Answer: ADE

FileMaker   FM0-303   FM0-303

NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
A user wants to build a FileMaker Pro 9 database that models a business organizational chart. One
person may manage zero or more people. One person may be managed by, at most, one other person.
The user wants to build the system in such a way that a single layout about a person can display the
name of the current person's manager as well as a portal of the people managed by the current person
(as shown in the Exhibit).
Assume that there are no lookup fields, calculation fields, or fields with auto-entered calculations defined
in any table, and there are no scripts in the file.
What is the minimum number of table occurrences that must be used to construct the layout?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which three of the following actions in FileMaker Pro 9 will directly trigger a FileMaker Pro 6 database
to be converted? (Choose three.)
A. Open the FileMaker Pro 6 file
B. Import / access data from the file
C. Import / access a value list from the file
D. Use the Convert File script step on the file
E. Drag and drop the file onto the FileMaker Pro 9 icon
Answer: ADE

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NO.21 Which elements of a FileMaker file should be reviewed for behavior consistency after converting from
FileMaker Pro 6 to FileMaker Pro 9? (Choose four.)
A. Record locking
B. Repeating fields
C. Calculation results
D. Instant Web Publishing settings
E. Scripts set to perform When opening this file in File Options
Answer: ACDE

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NO.22 Which two of the following statements are true regarding tooltips? (Choose two.)
A. Tooltips are not visible in Preview mode.
B. Tooltip text can only incorporate indexed/stored data.
C. A tooltip can be attached to any FileMaker layout object (excluding parts).
D. Tooltips created in FileMaker Pro 9 Advanced can be edited in FileMaker Pro 9, but not added or
deleted.
Answer: AC

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NO.23 When publishing FileMaker 9 files for web access, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. In order to work with a FileMaker Pro database via Instant Web Publishing, a user's web browser must
have JavaScript enabled.
B. In order to access a FileMaker Pro database using Instant Web Publishing, a user account must have
the [fmiwp] extended privilege enabled.
C. A FileMaker Pro database may be configured for access via either Custom Web Publishing with XML
OR Custom Web Publishing with PHP, but not both.
D. A FileMaker Pro database hosted via Instant Web Publishing using the FileMaker Pro or FileMaker Pro
Advanced client can only be accessed by programs and users on the same computer.
Answer: AB

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NO.24 Which three functions can be performed using the Save Records As PDF script step? (Choose three.)
A. Append to an existing PDF file
B. Add a password to an existing PDF file
C. Specify the magnification for the initial view
D. Enable the copying of text, images, and other content
E. Set the color scale of the document to Black & White
Answer: ACD

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NO.25 On conversion to FileMaker Pro 9, what does the old password from a FileMaker Pro 6 file become?
A. A privilege set
B. Only the account name
C. Only the account password
D. Both an account name and account password
Answer: D

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NO.26 When importing table schema and data using FileMaker Pro 9 Advanced, which statement is true?
A. Privileges from the source file are retained
B. Relationships between tables are imported
C. Tables can be imported directly from FileMaker Pro 6 files
D. The user must have [Full Access] privileges to both the source and destination files
Answer: D

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NO.27 Given: A one-to-many relationship from Planet to Moon. Which two formulas could be used as a
calculation field in the Planet table to return the name of the last related Moon record? (Choose two.)
A. Max (Planet::Name)
B. GetNthRecord (Planet::Name ; Count (Planet::Name))
C. GetNthRecord (Planet::Name ; Max (Planet::Name))
D. Let ( planetList = List (Planet::Name) ;
GetValue (planetList ; ValueCount (planetList)))
Answer: BD

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NO.28 A layout showing records from a People table has the Save record changes automatically check box
disabled in the Layout Setup dialog.
Which two actions cause FileMaker Pro 9 to display a dialog asking whether or not you want to save
changes to the current record? (Choose two.)
A. Importing records into the People table
B. Editing a field value on the layout and attempting to commit the record
C. Running a script that navigates to that layout, changes a field value, and performs a Commit
Records/Requests[No Dialog] script step
D. Running a script that navigates to that layout, changes a field value, and performs a Commit
Records/Requests[Skip data entry validation] script step
Answer: BD

FileMaker   certification FM0-303   FM0-303   FM0-303

NO.29 Which three statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 9? (Choose three.)
A. Indexing improves the speed at which finds are performed.
B. Value lists require at least one referenced field to be indexed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. Using Unicode as the default language by which a field is indexed causes sorts on that field to be case
sensitive.
E. A value index, used in establishing relationships, stores up to 60 primary characters or digits per
return-delimited line.
Answer: ABD

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NO.30 What is the maximum number of characters that can be entered or imported into a single record's text
field in FileMaker Pro 9?
A. 64 thousand
B. 1 million
C. 1 billion
D. 2 billion
E. Limited only by disk space
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: I10-003
Nom d'Examen: XML Master (XML Master Professional Database Administrator)
Questions et réponses: 39 Q&As

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NO.1 Continuously check the data types for the values in the XML document, and search through
data using queries on the XML document
[Management Methods]
A) XML document file (text file) management via file system
B) Management via RDB (relational database), and program for storing data from an XML
document into the RDB (assume the RDB does not maintain an XML document tree structure)
C) Management via XMLDB, using XML Schema definitions
D) Management via XMLDB, without using XML Schema definitions
A. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
B. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
C. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Answer: A

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4. Select which of the following is not a correct description regarding dynamic context defined by
XQuery 1.0.
A. Dynamic context is information that is available at the time the expression is evaluated
B. The dynamic context consists of all the components of the static context (default element/type
namespace, etc.), and additional components (context item, etc.)
C. The value of context size (one of the dynamic context components) can be obtained using the
"fn:last()" function
D. Query prolog cannot be used to set the value for any of the dynamic context components
Answer: D

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NO.2 Assume that perfect fidelity of a complete XML document is required in a certain XML
document.
Select the most suitable method for providing perfect XML document fidelity when storing an XML
document using the following methods.
Here "perfect XML document fidelity" means that an XML document retrieved from the XMLDB is
exactly the same as the original XML document prior to XMLDB insertion, completely identical
when compared using binary, including empty element notations, whitespace locations, etc.
A. Store the XML document as a model based on XPath 1.0
B. Store the XML document as a model based on XML Information Set (Infoset)
C. Store the XML document as a BLOB (Binary Large Object) type with no character encoding
method defined
D. Store the XML document as an NCLOB (National Character Large Object) type for which UTF-
8 has been defined as the character encoding method
Answer: C

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NO.3 Assume that a certain XMLDB has an HTTP listener function, and can receive XML documents
via
HTTP protocol.
In this case, the XMLDB follows [Procedure] below to identify the character encoding method of
the XML document received.
[Procedure]
(1) If the XML document character encoding method can be determined from the HTTP request
header, process the XML document character encoding according to the HTTP request header
information.
(2) If the XML document character encoding method cannot be determined from the HTTP request
header, identify the character encoding from the XML document itself
Select which is correct as the identified character encoding resulting from the procedure above
when the XMLDB receives a well-formed XML document according to [Conditions] below. Assume
that the XMLDB follows RFC3023.
[Conditions]
The actual character encoding method for XML document is "UTF-16;" however, no XML
declaration is specified.
The HTTP request header defines "Content-Type: text/xml." however, the charset parameter is not
defined in this Content-Type header field.
A. US-ASCII
B. UTF-8
C. UTF-16
D. The character encoding method is determined from system locale, and is therefore
undetermined
Answer: A

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NO.4 Assume that you wish to improve the response time when executing the following [XQuery]
on a
certain XMLDB.
Which one of the answers below is not an appropriate point to be checked?
Assume that the XMLDB does not have any automated optimization functions related to the
answer choices.
A. Revise the [XQuery] expression
B. Revise the configuration of the relevant XML data index
C. Investigate the disk capacity size used by the XMLDB
D. Investigate the influence of any exclusive access controls performed by other processes when
executing the [XQuery]
Answer: C

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NO.5 Four separate operating requirements and four individual storage management methods for
XML
document data are listed below.
Considering the general characteristics, which individual management method ([Management
Methods]) combines most optimally with which requirement ([Operating Requirements])?
[Operating Requirements]
1. Retrieve a portion of the XML document according to values in the XML document
2. Identify the XML document by unique values, and retrieve the entire XML document
3. Perform aggregation and statistical calculations of the values in the XML document

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Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VI4)
Questions et réponses: 560 Q&As

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NO.1 Under which of the following conditions would an administrator consider using the Boot from SAN
option for the ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. When concern exists that contention might occur between the Service Console and the VMkernel
B. When using Microsoft Cluster Service
C. To easily replicate the Service Console to a remote site
D. In diskless hardware configurations
Answer: CD

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NO.2 Creating which of the following optional partitions would change the default partition size for /?
A. /tmp
B. /home
C. /var/log
D. /usr
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is a benefit of ESXi over ESX?
A. Improved Fault Isolation
B. Increased Security and Reliability
C. Dynamic Resource Allocation
D. Memory Overcommitment
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following are modules that are not pre-installed and must be added to a vCenter
(Choose Three)?
A. VMware vCenter Converter
B. VMware vCenter Guided Consolidation
C. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
D. VMware vCenter Update Manager
E. VMware vCenter Storage Monitoring
Answer: ABD

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NO.5 When configuring the Oracle Connection to work remotely with vCenter Server, which of the following
is required (Choose Two)?
A. The tnsnames.ora file must be edited with the managed host name
B. The TNS Service Name option must be configured in the ODBC DSN
C. Use the Net8 Conf iguration Utility to add the service name
D. Add the entry open_cursors = 300 to the C:.ora file
Answer: AB

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NO.6 When installing ESX 4.0, where is the Service Console file system located?
A. In a virtual disk on a local VMFS datastore
B. In a virtual disk on a local or shared VMFS datastore
C. On a local physical disk or on a mapped SAN LUN
D. On a local physical disk
Answer: A

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NO.7 An administrator is installing vCenter. The selected database is Oracle 11g. Which of the following
steps are required to configure the database for use with vCenter (Choose Two)?
A. Use a Script to Create the Oracle Database Schema
B. Use a Script to Create a Local or Remote Database
C. Configure an Oracle Database User
D. Configure an Oracle Connection for Local or Remote Access
Answer: CD

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NO.8 Which of the following would prevent the application of a Host Profile to an ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. The host is an ESXi Host
B. The host has not been placed into Maintenance Mode
C. The host has multiple profiles attached
D. The host is an ESX 3.5 Host
Answer: BD

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NO.9 The default swap partition size for ESX 4.0 is which of the following?
A. 800MB
B. 1.6GB
C. 544MB
D. 600MB
Answer: D

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NO.10 An administrator is installing ESX 4.0 on a physical server. Which of the following components would
need to be modified or replaced to support a successful ?
A. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
B. 2 LSI Logic LSI7202XP-LC Fibre Channel HBAs
C. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
D. 4GB RAM
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following partitions is specific to ESXi 4.0?
A. usr
B. vmkcore
C. scratch
D. swap
Answer: C

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NO.12 An ESX Administrator plans to install additional supported components on the ESX Server that would
increase the memory requirements for the Service Console. Which ESX Server partition would also need
to be increased during as a result?
A. /
B. vmfs3
C. swap
D. /boot
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following are benefits of ESXi over ESX (Choose Two)?
A. RCLI support
B. Scripted
C. Smaller Attack Surface
D. Less Code to Patch
Answer: CD

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NO.14 Which of the following are valid sub-profile configurations that may be edited with the Host Profile editor
(Choose Three)?
A. Advanced
B. Virtual Machine Options
C. Security
D. Memory Reservation
E. CPU Reservation
Answer: ACD

certification VMware   certification VCP-411   certification VCP-411   certification VCP-411

NO.15 An administrator is installing vCenter in a virtual machine. The selected database is Microsoft SQL
Server 2005. Which of the following actions must be taken before vCenter is installed (Choose Two)?
A. If the guest OS has MSXML Core Services 6.0 installed, it must be removed
B. The Microsoft SQL Native Client should be removed
C. The Microsoft SQL Server Client should be removed
D. If the guest OS is Windows XP, MDAC 2.8 SP1 must be applied
Answer: AD

VMware   VCP-411   VCP-411   VCP-411

NO.16 An administrator is installing an ESX Host to boot from a SAN LUN. The storage array is an
active/passive array. After configuring the boot LUN and installing ESX, the system does not boot properly.
Which of the following could cause this issue?
A. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
B. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
C. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
D. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
Answer: A

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NO.17 An administrator is checking a HA/DRS Cluster for Compliance. Which of the following occurs if a host
profile is not attached to the cluster.?
A. The compliance check asks for a valid host profile
B. The compliance check uses the default Datacenter host profile
C. The compliance check generates an error
D. The cluster is checked for specific HA, DRS and DPM cluster requirements
Answer: D

VMware examen   VCP-411   VCP-411 examen   VCP-411

NO.18 Which of the following are valid methods of creating a Host Profile (Choose Two)?
A. Create a profile using the Profile Editor
B. Create a profile from an existing ESX 4 Host
C. Import a profile from an existing .vpf file
D. Clone a profile from an existing profile
Answer: BC

VMware   VCP-411   VCP-411

NO.19 What is the proper LUN Masking configuration for LUNs presented to an ESX Host when using the
Boot from SAN option?
A. The Boot LUN should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUN, while the datastore
LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
B. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
C. The Boot LUN should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUN, while the datastore LUNS
should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
D. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
Answer: A

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NO.20 What are two reasons why a company would choose to use VMware ESXi instead of using VMware
Server 2? (Choose Two)
A. The company wants to be able to patch the servers hosting their virtual machines with zero virtual
machine downtime
B. The company is virtualizing several physical servers and wants a centralized management option
C. The company needs to access their virtual machines remotely and VMware Server 2 does not support
a remote console option
D. The company needs the ability to run dual-processor virtual machines
Answer: AB

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Code d'Examen: VCPC510
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on vCloud)
Questions et réponses: 250 Q&As

VCPC510 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/VCPC510.html

NO.1 On which two vSphere elements can traffic shaping be configured? (Choose two.)
A. On a vSphere Distributed Switch dvPort for inbound and/or outbound traffic
B. On a vSphere Distributed Switch for inbound and/or outbound traffic
C. On a vSphere Standard Switch port group or the entire vSwitch for inbound traffic
D. On a vSphere Standard Switch port group or the entire vSwitch for inbound and outbound traffic
Answer: A,B

VMware examen   VCPC510   VCPC510   VCPC510

NO.2 An administrator attempts to delete the network named Internet but receives an error.
What is a possible reason for the error?
A. The network named Internet is backed by a port group on a vSphere Standard Switch.
B. The vShield Edge appliance on the external network is powered off.
C. The administrator needs to be an Organization Administrator.
D. The network is still in use by an Organization.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which three features are only available when using a vSphere Distributed Switch? (Choose
three.)
A. Port Mirroring
B. PVLAN tagging
C. Egress Traffic Shaping
D. Ingress Traffic Shaping
E. 802.1q VLAN Tagging
Answer: A,B,D

VMware examen   certification VCPC510   certification VCPC510   VCPC510 examen   VCPC510

NO.4 Which two components are required for a vCloud infrastructure installation? (Choose two.)
A. AMQP Broker
B. vCloud Connector
C. vShield Manager
D. Oracle/MS SQL database
Answer: C,D

VMware examen   VCPC510   VCPC510   VCPC510   VCPC510

NO.5 Which two resources must be in place prior to creating a new Provider vDC? (Choose two.)
A. vCloud External Network
B. vCenter Datastore
C. vCenter Resource Pool
D. vShield Protection Group
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 In a large organization, a user has 10 VMs deployed in vCloud Director, backed by a
Pay-As-You-
Go allocation model. The user needs to determine the charges being incurred for resource usage.
Which report type does the user need?
A. Showback Report
B. Usage Report
C. Cost Comparison Report
D. Cost Report
Answer: D

VMware   VCPC510   VCPC510 examen   VCPC510 examen

NO.7 As a System Administrator you can disable an Organization vDC. Disabling will have which of
the
following effects? (Choose two)
A. vApps in the Org vDC that are not running cannot be powered on.
B. All vApps in the Org vDC will be shutdown.
C. Users will not be able to create or start additional vApps in that Org vDC.
D. The running vApps in the Org vDC will have their storage lease reset.
Answer: A,C

VMware   VCPC510   VCPC510 examen

NO.8 An administrator would like to have vCenter take action any time a virtual machine is using
over
90% of its available resources for five minutes or longer.
Which three actions can be taken by vCenter Server in response to the trigger without running a
script? (Choose three.)
A. Power on a VM
B. Reboot Guest on VM
C. Increase Virtual Machine Memory
D. Migrate a VM
E. Increase Virtual Machine CPU Shares
Answer: A,B,D

VMware examen   VCPC510   VCPC510

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Code d'Examen: TU0-001
Nom d'Examen: TruSecure (TruSecure ICSA Certified Security Associate)
Questions et réponses: 196 Q&As

TU0-001 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/TU0-001.html

NO.1 What are three functions performed by the IPSec protocol? (choose three)
A. providing encrypted tunnels between gateways
B. providing encrypted multicast traffic across enterprises
C. ensuring integrity of unencrypted data between routers
D. providing encrypted connections between workstations and servers
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 Which two assurances does digitally signing a file or message provide? (choose two)
A. time stamping
B. data integrity
C. non-repudiation
D. confidentiality
Answer: B, C

TruSecure   TU0-001   TU0-001 examen   TU0-001   TU0-001 examen

NO.3 Proxy servers operate at which TCP/IP layer?
A. security
B. application
C. host-to-host
D. network interface
Answer: B

TruSecure   TU0-001   TU0-001   TU0-001 examen   TU0-001

NO.4 Which two does the proxy service SOCKS Version 5 provide? (choose two)
A. keystroke logging
B. WINS name service
C. TCP-based services
D. Strong authentication schemes
Answer: A,B

TruSecure examen   TU0-001   certification TU0-001

NO.5 Echo and Chargen services are most often used for_________
A. measuring load on a local system
B. maliciously inducing stress on networks
C. creating L2 TP tunnels between networks
D. forwarding connections between systems
Answer: B

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NO.6 What does defense in depth refer to?
A. storing the firewall below ground
B. centralizing your security into one point
C. having more than one layer of protection
D. having different types of firewall on your network
Answer: C

TruSecure examen   TU0-001 examen   TU0-001

NO.7 What is one-to one Network Address Translation (NAT)?
A. It is a service that translates only one originator address at a time.
B. It is a service that translate all originator addresses with a single translated address.
C. It is a service that translates a unique originator address with a unique translated
address.
D. It is a service that translates a unique originator address with one of many translated
addresses.
Answer: C

TruSecure examen   TU0-001   TU0-001   TU0-001   TU0-001

NO.8 What is true about removing command line tools on Web servers?
A. It limits footholds for an attacker
B. It is common in default installations
C. It is an example of security through obscurity
D. It reduces security because of fewer administrator tools
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the most significant problem solved by public-key cryptography?
A. key recovery
B. key exchange
C. key generation
D. key distribution
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the most secure means of administering a router?
A. SSH
B. Telnet
C. Web GuI
D. Serial Connection
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the weakest aspect of the DES cryptographic algorithm in protecting
sensitive information?
A. The complexity of the algorithm makes it too slow for day-to day use.
B. Automated attacks at guessing all possible keys have been demonstrated.
C. The block size of the algorithm is too small to handle large amounts of data.
D. The source code of the algorithm is widely available and may prove to have flaws.
Answer: B

TruSecure   TU0-001   TU0-001 examen   TU0-001   TU0-001 examen

NO.12 Which attack is made easier by poor TCP/IP implementations?
A. IP spoofing
B. Password guessing
C. Network PING sweeps
D. TCP sequence guessing
Answer: D

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NO.13 What are two uses of the TCP wrappers package?
A. It logs all TCP connections.
B. It provides granular access control to TCP services.
C. It encapsulates TCP segments inside other protocols to bypass firewall.
D. It prevents external hosts from initiating TCP-based applications on internal servers.
Answer: A,B

TruSecure   certification TU0-001   TU0-001   TU0-001

NO.14 Which three are protocols or services used for authentication functions? (choose
three)
A. NTP
B. PAP
C. CHAP
D. TAPI
E. RADIUS
Answer: A,B,C

certification TruSecure   TU0-001   TU0-001

NO.15 Which desired design philosophies are demonstrated by the "belt-and suspenders"
architecture?
A. least privilege and simplicity
B. simplicity and diversity of defense
C. universal participation and least privilege
D. diversity of defense and defense in depth
E. defense in depth and universal participation
Answer: D

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NO.16 Your Windows PCs rely on n Network Neighborhood to gain access to resources.
Your users are widely reporting resources missing.
What is likely the problem?
A. You are currently under a denial of service attack.
B. Your systems have been infected with a Trojan Horse.
C. Directed broadcasts have been disabled at your routers.
D. Updated internet firewall rules have prevented the NBT protocol.
Answer: C

TruSecure   certification TU0-001   TU0-001 examen

NO.17 What should you remember when using a plug or generic proxy?
A. Logging is extremely difficult
B. It cannot detect IP spoofing attacks
C. It adds no application specific checking
D. It cannot be tied to a particular service or protocol
Answer: C

TruSecure   certification TU0-001   TU0-001   TU0-001 examen

NO.18 From a network security standpoint, TFTP should be used_______
A. to authenticate to a Web server
B. whenever you need a simple file transfer mechanism
C. in place of FTP to provide better authentication and tracking
D. in a limited capacity with the least amount of privilege possible
Answer: D

TruSecure   TU0-001   TU0-001

NO.19 It is most likely for unencrypted data to be sniffed across which connection?
A. dial-up
B. 802.11b
C. DSL/cable
D. Internet OC-3
Answer: B

certification TruSecure   certification TU0-001   TU0-001

NO.20 When installing an OS on a new platform, what is recommended?
A. encrypt all system files
B. apply all of the vendors patches
C. delete all admin accounts left by the installation
D. wait and see if problems develop before applying patches to minimize down time.
Answer: B

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Dernières Tibco TB0-123 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: TB0-123
Nom d'Examen: Tibco (TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks 5 Certification Exam )
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

TB0-123 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/TB0-123.html

NO.1 The Generic Adapter Configuration supports which three adapter services? (Choose three.)
A.Write to Adapter Socket
B.Remote Invocation
C.Respond to Adapter Request
D.Publication
E.Subscription
F.Request-Response
Answer:DEF

certification Tibco   certification TB0-123   TB0-123

NO.2 The transport parameters for a TIBCO Administrator domain have been changed.
Which two steps are now necessary? (Choose two.)
A.All applications deployed in the domain should be redeployed.
B.The Administrator Server and any secondary servers should be restarted.
C.The Domain Hawk Agents on each machine in the domain should be restarted.
D.The EAR file with the new transport parameters should be rebuilt.
Answer:BC

Tibco   certification TB0-123   certification TB0-123   TB0-123   TB0-123 examen   TB0-123

NO.3 You wish to insert an activity into an ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks process.
Which TIBCO Designer menu should you use?
A.Project
B.Resources
C.Edit
D.Palettes
Answer:B

Tibco examen   TB0-123   TB0-123   TB0-123   TB0-123

NO.4 When a transition is created, which condition type is used by default?
A.Success with Condition
B.Error
C.Otherwise
D.Success if No Matching Condition
E.Success
Answer:B

Tibco examen   TB0-123   TB0-123   TB0-123   TB0-123   certification TB0-123

NO.5 The installation registry consists of which two files? (Choose two.)
A.vpd.properties
B.history.xmi
C.install.properties
D.machine.xmi
E.vpd.properties.tibco.<systemName>
Answer:AE

Tibco   certification TB0-123   TB0-123 examen

NO.6 Which web server implementation is used by default in ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks?
A.Jetty
B.Tomcat
C.JBoss
D.GlassFish
Answer:B

Tibco   TB0-123 examen   TB0-123   TB0-123 examen

NO.7 Which tab of an activity contains the icon for the XPath formula builder?
A.Configuration tab
B.Input tab
C.Schema tab
D.Output tab
Answer:B

Tibco   TB0-123   TB0-123   TB0-123

NO.8 Click on the Exhibit button.
Which activity will this execution transfer to if an error occurs at the CheckInventory activity?
A.IncomingOrder
B.End
C.RespondNotAvailable
D.CatchInventory
E.CatchAllOthers
Answer:D

Tibco   TB0-123 examen   TB0-123   TB0-123 examen   TB0-123 examen

NO.9 What are two places the domain properties can be found? (Choose two.)
A.TIBCO_HOME/domain
B.TIBCO_HOME/administrator/domain
C.TIBCO_HOME/repository
D.TIBCO_HOME/designer/domain
E.TIBCO_HOME/tra/domain
Answer:BE

Tibco   TB0-123 examen   TB0-123   certification TB0-123

NO.10 Which two settings can be changed from the "Configure runtime" option on the TIBCO Designer
Startup Panel Administration tab? (Choose two.)
A.transition line mode
B.maximum JVM heap size
C.user directory location
D.deployment target machine
Answer:BC

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NO.11 The JVM is crashing every time the ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks installer tries to start.
Which two steps should be taken? (Choose two.)
A.add the parameter -update JVM to the installer
B.check that the javahome directory contains bin/java.exe or bin/java
C.check that the network has access to sun.java.com
D.try running the installer using a different version of JVM
Answer:BD

Tibco examen   certification TB0-123   certification TB0-123

NO.12 How can a custom database driver be added to TIBCO Runtime Agent?
A.by using the TIBCO Configuration Tool
B.by using traDBConfig
C.by using the TIBCO Administrator GUI
D.by using the Domain Utility CLI
Answer:B

Tibco examen   certification TB0-123   certification TB0-123   certification TB0-123

NO.13 Which software is necessary in order to manage ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks resources?
A.TIBCO Administrator and TIBCO EMS
B.TIBCO Repository Adapter and TIBCO EMS
C.TIBCO Runtime Agent and TIBCO Administrator
D.TIBCO Rendezvous and TIBCO Runtime Agent
Answer:C

certification Tibco   TB0-123   TB0-123   TB0-123

NO.14 Which two steps must take place before a domain can be deleted? (Choose two.)
A.All deployed applications must be undeployed.
B.Any LDAP server used by the domain must be stopped.
C.All secondary servers must be deleted through TIBCO Domain Utility.
D.All administrators associated with the domain must be deleted.
Answer:AC

Tibco   TB0-123 examen   TB0-123   certification TB0-123   TB0-123

NO.15 TIBCO Designer can create web services from which sources?
A.WSDL and Process Definition
B.SOAP RetrieveResource and Process Definition
C.JMS Queue Subscriber and WSDL
D.HTTP Receiver and JMS Queue Subscriber
Answer:A

Tibco   certification TB0-123   certification TB0-123   certification TB0-123

NO.16 How do TIBCO Designer projects store trusted certificates?
A.in PKCS12 format
B.in PEM format
C.in PPK format
D.in PFX format
Answer:B

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NO.17 Which two methods does ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks support for storing trusted certificates?
(Choose two.)
A.in a project
B.in an alias library
C.in PKCS12 format
D.in KeyStore format
E.in a design time library
Answer:AE

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NO.18 For a Java class specified in an XML to Java Activity, which two characteristics are required? (Choose
two.)
A.It must be serializable.
B.It must implement Runnable Interface.
C.It must have a public default constructor.
D.It must have public methods for retrieving all data members.
Answer:AC

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NO.19 Which three actions can be taken directly from the Project tab in the TIBCO Designer startup panel?
(Choose three.)
A.Reopen Project
B.Add Users to Project
C.New Project From Template
D.Validate Project
E.New Empty Project
F.Deploy Project
Answer:ACE

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NO.20 Which statement is true about the Load Full Project option in TIBCO Designer?
A.It loads only the referenced parts of the project.
B.It loads and validates the entire project in memory.
C.It makes working with the project faster.
D.It finds references to other projects in memory.
Answer:C

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Le test de Certification Tibco TB0-123 devient de plus en plus chaud dans l'Industrie IT. En fait, ce test demande beaucoup de travaux pour passer. Généralement, les gens doivent travailler très dur pour réussir.