Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur Symantec ST0-202 850-001 ST0-200 ST0-199

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Code d'Examen: ST0-202

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Mobile Management Suite (CMS/ITMS) (March 2013) STS)

Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 850-001

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Cloud Security 1.0)

Questions et réponses: 92 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-200

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec System Recovery 2013 Technical Assessment)

Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-199

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.0 Technical Assessment )

Questions et réponses: 121 Q&As

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NO.1 A company is reaching their maximum CPU load for their email and Web servers, and begins
investigation of public IaaS cloud bursting. The company is concerned about complex attack
vectors launched against the hosted systems. To protect the assets, a number of Symantec
security products will also be migrated. Which Symantec security solution provides continuous
system visibility across all devices and facilitates detection of complex attack vectors?
A. Critical System Protection
B. Security Information Manager
C. Gateway Security
D. Endpoint Protection with Network Threat Protection
Answer: B

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NO.2 A large international wealth management firm has a liberal mobile device policy for its
employees.
During the pre-adoption period, strategic documents are accessed and saved to the mobile
devices by the workforce. Which data security technology stops employees from sending these
documents to unauthorized parties?
A. data loss protection technologies
B. two-factor authentication technologies
C. web filtering technologies
D. encryption technologies
Answer: C

Symantec   850-001   certification 850-001   850-001 examen

NO.3 An enterprise is in the process of moving application servers to a cloud-based IaaS platform.
Which technology should an IT professional use to assess the risk of the IT assets in a business
context?
A. Symantec Control Compliance Suite
B. Symantec Critical Systems Protection
C. Symantec Data Loss Prevention
D. Symantec Validation and Identity Protection
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the most effective strategy for an IT professional to implement an IT governance, risk,
and
compliance solution in a private cloud?
A. use a checkbox approach to gather IT controls manually to identify high-risk vulnerabilities
B. utilize Excel spreadsheets, email-based questionnaires, or SharePoint sites to thoroughly
document IT controls
C. ensure anti-virus is deployed on all critical assets to stay ahead of threats and avoid data
breaches
D. put an automated program in place to identify vulnerabilities and security gaps and to track
remediation
Answer: A

Symantec examen   certification 850-001   850-001 examen   certification 850-001

NO.5 A cloud service customer is facing application failure and data corruption in their virtual
infrastructure. The IT department has asked for a solution that will scan for rogue virtual machines,
which will reduce the security risk in physical and virtual infrastructure. Which solution can fulfill
the requirement?
A. Symantec Critical Systems Protection
B. Symantec Control Compliance Suite
C. Symantec Endpoint Protection
D. Symantec Security Information Manager
Answer: B

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NO.6 An organization has mandated that workflow for certain SaaS applications must travel over
slower
leased lines and through the company's cloud in order to mitigate security concerns of the CISO.
Which end user behavior vulnerability can this cause?
A. waiting until close of business to send their data
B. lack of concern with international charges
C. finding an alternate network path
D. disabling personal firewall to maximize bandwidth
Answer: C

Symantec examen   850-001   850-001 examen   850-001 examen

NO.7 Which factor exists in many organizations that inhibits an effective IT Governance, Risk, and
Compliance program?
A. High-level reports and dashboards provide a C-Level view of the enterprise risk posture.
B. Policies tied to controls are defined to address multiple regulations and frameworks.
C. Technical controls on assets from multiple business units are regularly evaluated to determine
aggregate risk.
D. Numerous assessment tools are deployed throughout the enterprise, generating vendorspecific
reports.
Answer: D

Symantec examen   850-001   certification 850-001   850-001 examen

NO.8 What is a valid security concern when designing a cloud architecture that heavily leverages
SaaS
providers?
A. lack of a metered model from the cloud provider
B. inefficient workflows for change control
C. inherent flaws in web-based applications
D. inability to support iOS devices
Answer: C

Symantec   850-001 examen   850-001 examen   850-001 examen

NO.9 What can a hosted Symantec Data Loss Prevention solution do to protect confidential data in
an
outgoing email?
A. modify the email attachment content to remove confidential information
B. add a header to an email to route to an encryption gateway
C. use a Flex Response plug-in to modify the email header
D. modify the email body to redirect to a quarantine location
Answer: B

Symantec   850-001   850-001   850-001

NO.10 A company is invested heavily in migrating their IT infrastructure to an IaaS cloud provider. It is
determined that the storage infrastructure of the service provider resides in a country with weak
laws on data privacy. As a result, the cloud service provider may be required to turn over the
company's data for legal review. Which action could the company take to prevent the cloud
service provider from disclosing the company's data?
A. require the service provider to encrypt the data
B. migrate the infrastructure to a new cloud provider
C. implement their own legal discovery solution
D. implement their own encryption solution
Answer: D

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Dernières SUN 310-810 310-301 310-600 310-610 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 310-810

Nom d'Examen: SUN (Sun Certified MySQL 5.0 Database Administrator Part 1)

Questions et réponses: 139 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 310-301

Nom d'Examen: SUN (Sun Certified Security Administrator)

Questions et réponses: 240 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 310-600

Nom d'Examen: SUN (SUN SIGMA BLACK BELT CERTIFICATION)

Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 310-610

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Questions et réponses: 139 Q&As

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NO.1 The system administrator finds a Trojaned login command using md5 and the Solaris
Fingerprint Database. What is true about the system administrator's incident response tasks?
A.The server must be rebuilt.
B.BSM will identify the attacker.
C.All other replaced system files can be identified using md5 and the Solaris Fingerprint Database.
D.All other replaced system files can be identified using md5 and the Solaris Fingerprint Database and
replaced with trusted versions.
Correct:A

SUN examen   310-301   certification 310-301   certification 310-301

NO.2 Which is a public key encryption algorithm?
A.AH
B.AES
C.RSA
D.PGP
E.IDEA
Correct:C

SUN examen   310-301   certification 310-301   certification 310-301

NO.3 Which two types of host keys are supported by Solaris Secure Shell? (Choose two.)
A.AES
B.RSA
C.DSA
D.DES
E.3DES
Correct:B C

SUN examen   310-301   certification 310-301   certification 310-301

NO.4 Which is uncharacteristic of a Trojan horse program used to escalate privileges?
A.It is installed in /usr/bin.
B.It is owned by a normal user.
C.It has the same name as a common program.
D.It contains additional functionality which the user does not expect.
Correct:A

SUN examen   310-301   certification 310-301   certification 310-301

NO.5 What cryptographic assurance is provided by public key cryptography that is NOT provided by
secret key cryptography?
A.integrity
B.confidentiality
C.authentication
D.non-repudiation
Correct:D

SUN examen   310-301   certification 310-301   certification 310-301

NO.6 How do you distinguish between denial of service attacks and programming errors?
A.You cannot make this distinction.
B.You examine the audit events for the process.
C.You verify that the process user ID is that of a valid user.
D.You check the binary against the Solaris Fingerprint Database.
Correct:A

SUN examen   310-301   certification 310-301   certification 310-301

NO.7 Which two regular user PATH assignments expose the user to a Trojan horse attack? (Choose
two.)
A.PATH=/usr/bin:/bin
B.PATH=/usr/bin:/sbin:/usr/sbin
C.PATH=/usr/bin:/sbin:/usr/sbin:
D.PATH=.:/usr/bin:/sbin:/usr/sbin
Correct:C D

SUN examen   310-301   certification 310-301   certification 310-301

NO.8 Which command can customize the size for system log file rotation?
A.dmesg
B.logger
C.logadm
D.syslog
E.syslogd
Correct:C

SUN examen   310-301   certification 310-301   certification 310-301

NO.9 Which command generates client key pairs and adds them to the $HOME/.ssh directory?
A.ssh-add
B.ssh-agent
C.ssh-keygen
D.ssh-keyadd
Correct:C

SUN examen   310-301   certification 310-301   certification 310-301

NO.10 User fred runs a program that consumes all of the system's memory while continuously
spawning a new program. You decide to terminate all of fred's programs to put a stop to this. What
command should you use?
A.kill -u fred
B.pkill -U fred
C.passwd -l fred
D.kill `ps -U fred -o pid`
Correct:B

SUN examen   310-301   certification 310-301   certification 310-301

NO.11 Which syslog facility level specification can be used to record unsuccessful attempts to su(1M)?
A.su.warning
B.cron.debug
C.kernel.alert
D.auth.warning
Correct:D

SUN examen   310-301   certification 310-301   certification 310-301

NO.12 What command loads a DSA identity into a Solaris Secure Shell authentication agent?
A.ssh-add
B.ssh-agent
C.ssh-keyadd
D.ssh-keyload
E.ssh-load-identity
Correct:A

SUN examen   310-301   certification 310-301   certification 310-301

NO.13 Which setting in the /etc/system file limits the maximum number of user processes to 100 to
prevent a user from executing a fork bomb on a system?
A.set maxuprc = 100
B.set maxusers = 100
C.set user_procs = 100
D.set max_nprocs = 100
Correct:A

SUN examen   310-301   certification 310-301   certification 310-301

NO.14 /var/adm/messages contains this output: Jan 28 21:23:18 mailhost in.telnetd[20911]: [ID 808958
daemon.warning] refused connect from ns.foo.com (access denied) Why was this line generated?
A.A user connecting from ns.foo.com failed to authenticate.
B.The user daemon is not allowed to log in from ns.foo.com.
C.A portscan was run against mailhost from ns.foo.com.
D.The TCP Wrapper configuration does not allow telnet connections from ns.foo.com.
Correct:D

SUN examen   310-301   certification 310-301   certification 310-301

NO.15 Which statement about denial of service attack is FALSE?
A.Denial of service is always preventable.
B.Multiple machines may be used as the source of the attack.
C.Service is denied on the victim host when a key resource is consumed.
D.A denial of service attack is an explicit attempt by an attacker to prevent legitimate users of a service
from using that service.
Correct:A

SUN examen   310-301   certification 310-301   certification 310-301

NO.16 Which cryptographic assurances are provided by SSL?
A.confidentiality, integrity, availability
B.authorization, confidentiality, message integrity
C.confidentiality, client authentication, server authentication
D.authentication, confidentiality, access control, non-repudiation
Correct:C

SUN examen   310-301   certification 310-301   certification 310-301

NO.17 Click the Exhibit button. Which connection demonstrates that telnet has been denied using TCP
Wrappers?
A.Connection 1
B.Connection 2
C.Connection 3
D.Connection 4
Correct:A

SUN examen   310-301   certification 310-301   certification 310-301

NO.18 Which two services support TCP Wrappers by default in the Solaris 9 OE? (Choose two.)
A.inetd
B.rpcbind
C.sendmail
D.automountd
E.Solaris Secure Shell
Correct:A E

SUN examen   310-301   certification 310-301   certification 310-301

NO.19 Which evasion technique can NOT be detected by system integrity checks?
A.installing a rootkit
B.adding user accounts
C.abusing an existing user account
D.installing a loadable kernel module
Correct:C

SUN examen   310-301   certification 310-301   certification 310-301

NO.20 Which threat can be mitigated by setting the Open Boot PROM security mode to full?
A.system panics
B.booting into single user mode
C.remotely accessing the console
D.logging in as root at the console
Correct:B

SUN examen   310-301   certification 310-301   certification 310-301

Guide de formation plus récente de RES Software ES0-002

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Code d'Examen: ES0-002

Nom d'Examen: RES Software (RES Wisdom Series 4 Essentials Exam)

Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 RES Wisdom agents communicate directly with the
1. datastore.

NO.2 When using an MSSQL Server to hold a RES Wisdom datastore, which prerequisites must be met?
1. SQL server authentication must be set to Windows only.
2. SQL server authentication must be set to mixed mode.
3. A database and database user must be created.
4. An existing System Administrator Login must be available.
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B

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NO.3 While installing RES Wisdom
A. a default Security Role will be created.
B. a default RES Wisdom Login Account will be created.
C. the user will be prompted to create a Security Role.
D. the user will be prompted to create a RES Wisdom Login Account.
Answer: A

RES Software   ES0-002 examen   ES0-002

NO.4 With what setting is an administrator able to control when to download a resource to a dispatcher?
A. Dispatcher discovery
B. Dispatcher cache timing
C. Dispatcher cache duration
D. Dispatcher cache availability
Answer: B

RES Software examen   certification ES0-002   ES0-002

NO.5 A RES Wisdom login belongs to the following Security Roles:
Role 1:
Job Scheduling = Read
Current Activity = Deny
Job Results = Read
Role 2:
Job Scheduling = Deny
Current Activity = Read
Job Results = Modify
What is the resulting security for this login?
A. Job Scheduling = Read, Current Activity = Deny, Job Results = Read
B. Job Scheduling = Deny, Current Activity = Read, Job Results = Modify
C. Job Scheduling = Read, Current Activity = Read, Job Results = Modify
D. Job Scheduling = Deny, Current Activity = Deny, Job Results = Read
Answer: C

RES Software   certification ES0-002   certification ES0-002   ES0-002

NO.6 management console.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B

RES Software   ES0-002   ES0-002 examen
2. Which database types are supported by RES Wisdom?
1. MSSQL
2. MySQL
3. Oracle

NO.7 Which nodes are available in the Management Console after installing it?
A. Infrastructure > Datastore > Setup > Components
B. Infrastructure > Datastore > Setup > Connection
C. Infrastructure > Datastore > Setup > Global Settings
D. Infrastructure > Datastore > Setup > Licensing
Answer: B

RES Software   ES0-002   ES0-002   ES0-002   ES0-002   certification ES0-002

NO.8 How would an administrator make sure that all active dispatchers are available to an agent?
1. Use autodetect and only use discovered dispatchers
2. Use autodetect and retrieve complete dispatcher address list
3. Use dispatcher address list and only use discovered dispatchers
4. Use dispatcher address list and retrieve complete dispatcher address list after discovery
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only
Answer: C

RES Software   ES0-002 examen   ES0-002 examen   ES0-002   certification ES0-002

NO.9 IBM DB2
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D

certification RES Software   ES0-002   certification ES0-002   ES0-002   ES0-002
3. Bandwidth Management settings control the amount of data that is downloaded
A. per second by an agent from a dispatcher.
B. per second by a dispatcher from a datastore.
C. per minute by an agent from a dispatcher.
D. per minute by a dispatcher from a datastore.
Answer: A

certification RES Software   ES0-002   ES0-002 examen   ES0-002
4. When using an MSSQL datastore, MDAC 2.6 or higher is required by the
1. agent.
2. console.
3. dispatcher.
4. datastore.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 4 only
Answer: B

RES Software   certification ES0-002   ES0-002 examen   ES0-002

NO.10 dispatcher(s).

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (PeopleSoft Application Developer II: App Engine and Integration)

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: Administration II)

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle database 11g:advanced pl/sql)

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: Administrator I )

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: New Features for Administrators)

Questions et réponses: 183 Q&As

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NO.1 You plan to have a larger moving window size for the default system-defined moving window baseline
because you want to use the adaptive threshold.
Which statement factors in this consideration while increasing the size of the moving window.?
A. The collection level for the AWR should be set to BASIC.
B. The moving window size must be less than Undo Retention.
C. The moving window size should be greater than the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) retention
period.
D. The moving window size should be equal to or less than the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)
retention period.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two statements are true regarding hot patching? (Choose two.)
A. It requires relinking of the Oracle binary.
B. It does not require database instance shutdown.
C. It can detect conflicts between two online patches.
D. It is available for installing all patches on all platforms.
E. It works only in a single database instance environment.
Answer: BC

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-053   1Z0-053

NO.3 You need to configure fine-grained access control to external network resources from within your
database. You create an access control list (ACL) using the DBMS_NETWORK_ACL_ADMIN package.
Which statement is true regarding the ACL created?
A. It is a list of remote database links stored in the XML file that are available to the users of the database.
B. It is a list of users and network privileges stored in the XML file according to which a group of users can
connect to one or more hosts.
C. It is a list of users and network privileges stored in the data dictionary according to which a group of
users can connect to one or more hosts.
D. It is the list of the host names or the IP addresses stored in the data dictionary that can connect to your
database through PL/SQL network utility packages such as UTL_TCP.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are working on a CATDB database that contains an Oracle Database version 11.1 catalog schema
owned by the user RCO11. The INST1 database contains an Oracle Database version 10.1 catalog
schema owned by the user RCAT10.
You want the RMAN to import metadata for database IDs 1423241 and 1423242, registered in RCAT10,
into the recovery catalog owned by RCO11. You also want to deregister them from the catalog after import.
You executed the following commands to achieve this:
RMAN> CONNECT CATALOG rco11/password@catdb
RMAN> IMPORT CATALOG rcat10/oracle@inst1 DBID=1423241,1423242;
What happens if the RCO11 catalog has scripts with the same name as that of the scripts in RCAT10
catalog?
A. The scripts in the RCO11 catalog are overwritten.
B. RMAN renames the local stored scripts in the RCO11 catalog.
C. The RMAN session in which the command is executed aborts.
D. RMAN renames the global scripts that are imported from the RCAT10 catalog.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-053   1Z0-053

NO.5 The INV_HISTORY table is created using the command:
SQL>CREATE TABLE INV_HISTORY (inv_no NUMBER(3), inv_date DATE, inv_amt NUMBER(10,2))
partition by range (inv_date) interval
(numtoyminterval(1,'month')) (partition p0
values less than (to_date('01-01-2005','dd-mm-yyyy')), partition p1 values less than
(to_date('01-01-2006','dd-mm-yyyy')));
The following data has been inserted into the INV_HISTORY table :
INV_NO INV_DATE INV_AMT 1 30-dec-2004 1000 2 30-dec-2005 2000 3 1-feb-2006 3000 4 1-mar-2006
4000 5 1-apr-2006 5000
You would like to store the data belonging to the year 2006 in a single partition and issue the command:
SQL> ALTER TABLE inv_history MERGE PARTITIONS
FOR(TO_DATE('15-feb-2006','dd-mon-yyyy')), FOR(TO_DATE('15-apr-2006')) INTO PARTITION sys_py;
What would be the outcome of this command?
A. It executes successfully, and the transition point is set to '1-apr-2006'.
B. It executes successfully, and the transition point is set to '15-apr-2006'.
C. It produces an error because the partitions specified for merging are not adjacent.
D. It produces an error because the date values specified in the merge do not match the date values
stored in the table.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Because of a logical corruption in your production database, you wanted to perform Tablespace Point
in Time Recovery (TSPITR). But before you start the recovery, you queried the
TS_PITR_OBJECTS_TO_BE_DROPPED view and realized that there are a large number of objects that
would be dropped when you start the recovery by using this method. You want to preserve these objects.
Which option must you use to perform TSPITR and preserve the object?
A. Perform Export before TSPITR and Import after TSPITR
B. Move objects to another schema that has the same tablespace assigned
C. Perform Incomplete Recovery before TSPITR with the Log Sequence Number (LSN)
D. Perform Incomplete Recovery before TSPITR with the System Change Number (SCN)
Answer: A

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NO.7 View the Exhibit that sets the threshold for the Current Open Cursors Count metric. Why is the
Significance Level threshold type not available in the threshold setting?
A. because AWR baseline is not enabled
B. because Current Open Cursors Count is not a basic metric
C. because the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to BASIC
D. because the AWR baseline is a system-defined moving window baseline
Answer: B

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NO.8 Examine the section of the Health Check report given below:
DBMS_HM.GET_RUN_REPORT('HM_RUN_1061')
Run Name : HM_RUN_1061 Run Id : 1061 Check Name : Data Block Integrity Check Mode :
REACTIVE Status : COMPLETED Start Time : 2007-05-12 22:11:02.032292 -07:00 End Time :
2007.05-12 22:11:20.835135 -07:00 Error Encountered : 0
Source Incident Id : 7418
Number of Incidents Created :0
Which two statements are true regarding the Health Check report? (Choose two.)
A. Health Check was performed manually.
B. Health Check was performed to check the disk image block corruptions.
C. Health Check was performed to check interblock and intersegment corruption.
D. Health Check was performed to verify the integrity of database files and report failures.
E. Health Check was performed by the Health Monitor automatically in response to a critical error.
Answer: AB

Oracle   1Z0-053   1Z0-053   1Z0-053

NO.9 While deploying a new application module, the software vendor ships the application software along
with appropriate SQL plan baselines for the new SQLs being introduced. Which two statements describe
the consequences? (Choose two.)
A. The plan baselines can be evolved over time to produce better performance.
B. The newly generated plans are directly placed into the SQL plan baseline without being verified.
C. The new SQL statements initially run with the plans that are known to produce good performance
under standard test configuration.
D. The optimizer does not generate new plans for the SQL statements for which the SQL plan baseline
has been imported.
Answer: AC

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NO.10 Which statement describes the information returned by the DBMS_SPACE.SPACE_USAGE procedure
for LOB space usage?
A. It returns space usage of only BasicFile LOB chunks.
B. It returns space usage of only SecureFile LOB chunks.
C. It returns both BasicFile and SecureFile LOB space usage for only nonpartitioned tables.
D. It returns both BasicFile and SecureFile LOB space usage for both partitioned and nonpartitioned
tables.
Answer: B

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NO.11 A PL/SQL procedure queries only those columns of a redefined table that were unchanged by the
online table redefinition. What happens to the PL/SQL procedure after the online table redefinition?
A. It remains valid.
B. It becomes invalid for all options of online table redefinition but automatically gets revalidated the next
time it is used.
C. It becomes invalid for all options of online table redefinition and is automatically recompiled during
online redefinition of the table.
D. It becomes invalid only if the storage parameters have been modified and it automatically gets
revalidated the next time it is used.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which statement is true regarding online redefinition for the migration of BasicFile LOBs to SecureFile
LOBs?
A. It cannot be done in parallel.
B. It can be done at the table level or partition level.
C. It does not require additional storage because the operation is done online.
D. Local and global indexes are maintained automatically during the operation.
Answer: B

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NO.13 View the Exhibit and examine the resource consumption details for the current plan in use by the
database instance.
Which two statements are true based on the output? (Choose two.)
Exhibit:
A. An attempt to start a new session by the user belonging to DSS_QUERIES fails with an error
B. A user belonging to DSS_QUERIES can log in to a new session but the session will be queued
C. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for
the CPU due to resource management
D. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for
the CPU due to resource management, I/O waits, and latch or enqueue contention
Answer: BC

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NO.14 Which three components does the Scheduler use for managing tasks within the Oracle environment?
(Choose three.)
A. a job
B. a program
C. a schedule
D. a PL/SQL procedure
Answer: ABC

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NO.15 Consider the following scenario for your database:
-Backup optimization is enabled in RMAN. The recovery window is set to 7 days in RMAN. The most
recent backup to disk for the TOOLS tablespace was taken on November 3, 2007.
The TOOLS tablespace is read-only since November 4, 2007.
On November 23, 2007, you issue the RMAN command to back up the database to disk. Which statement
is true regarding the backup of the TOOLS tablespace?
A. The RMAN backup fails because the TOOLS tablespace is read-only
B. The RMAN skips the backup of the tablespace because backup optimization is enabled
C. The RMAN makes backup because optimization can be enabled only for backups to disk
D. The RMAN makes the backup because no backup of the tablespace exists within the seven day
window
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-053   1Z0-053

NO.16 Your database is in ARCHIVELOG mode. You have two online redo log groups, each of which contains
one redo member. When you attempt to start the database, you receive the following errors:
ORA-00313: open failed for members of log group 1 of thread 1
ORA-00312: online log 1 thread 1: 'D:\REDO01.LOG'
You discover that the online redo log file of the current redo group is corrupted.
Which statement should you use to resolve this issue?
A. ALTER DATABASE DROP LOGFILE GROUP 1;
B. ALTER DATABASE CLEAR LOGFILE GROUP 1;
C. ALTER DATABASE CLEAR UNARCHIVED LOGFILE GROUP 1;
D. ALTER DATABASE DROP LOGFILE MEMBER 'D:\REDO01.LOG';
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-053   1Z0-053   1Z0-053

NO.17 You are in the process of creating a virtual private catalog in your Oracle Database 11g database. The
PROD1, PROD2, and PROD3 Oracle Database 10g databases are registered in the base recovery
catalog. The database user who owns the base recovery catalog is CATOWNER. CATOWNER executes
the following command to grant privileges to a new user VPC1 using Oracle Database 11g RMAN
executables:
RMAN> GRANT CATALOG FOR DATABASE prod1, prod2 TO vpc1;
Then you issue the following commands:
RMAN> CONNECT CATALOG vpc1/oracle@catdb;
RMAN> SQL "EXEC catowner.dbms_rcvcat.create_virtual_catalog;"
What is the outcome of the above commands?
A. They execute and create a virtual catalog for pre-Oracle 11g clients.
B. They produce an error because PROD1 and PROD2 databases belong to the older version.
C. They produce an error because you need to connect as CATOWNER to execute this packaged
procedure.
D. They produce an error because you need to connect to the target database to execute this packaged
procedure.
Answer: A

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NO.18 You performed the RMAN database backup having a backupset key number 231 with the KEEP
FOREVER option.
After some days, you want to change the status of the database backup and you issued the following
command:
RMAN>CHANGE BACKUPSET 231 NOKEEP;
What is the implication of this command?
A. The backup is deleted.
B. The backup is marked unavailable.
C. The backup overrides the backup retention policy.
D. the backup becomes eligible for deletion according to the existing retention policy
Answer: D

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NO.19 You create a new Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) task:
instance_analysis_mode_task. To view the ADDM report, you use the following command:
SQL> SELECT dbms_addm.get_report('my_instance_analysis_mode_task') FROM dual;
You want to suppress ADDM output relating to Segment Advisor actions on user SCOTT's segments.
What would you do to achieve this?
A. Add a finding directive for the ADDM task.
B. Add a segment directive for the ADDM task.
C. Add a parameter directive for the ADDM task.
D. Disable the Segment Advisor from the Automatic Maintenance Task.
Answer: B

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NO.20 View the Exhibit to examine the metrics with a threshold. Which statement is true regarding the
Number of Transactions (per second) metric?
A. Oracle uses statistical relevance to determine when an adaptive threshold has been breached for the
metric.
B. The statistics for the metric values observed over the baseline time period are not examined to
determine threshold values.
C. Oracle determines when an adaptive threshold has been breached based on the maximum value
captured by the baseline.
D. The total concurrent number of threshold violations, which must occur before an alert is raised for the
metric, has been set to zero.
Answer: A

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle EBS R12.1 Inventory Essentials)

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NO.1 Yourclient has inventory organizations that belong to different operating units. All Items are
manufacturedinone operating unit and shipped to distribution warehouses that belong to other operating
units. On an exception basis, transfers may be arranged between distribution warehouses in different
operating units.
All transfers between operating units are at the shipping organization's standard cost plus a transfer
charge percentage.
Identify three inventory setup steps that are required for allowing the receiving inventory
organization to correctly process receipts from inventory organizations belonging to another operating unit.
(Choose three.)
A. Define an Intercompany Price List.
B. Define the correct Unit of Measure conversions for Dual UOM.
C. Define Intercompany Relations for each pair of operating units.
D. Define a separate Item Master Organization for each operating unit.
E. Define Receiving Options for each inventory organization in each operating unit.
F. Define Shipping Networks for each pair of shipping and receiving inventory organizations.
G. Ensure that the Receiving Options are uniform for ail inventory organizations in each
operatingunit.
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.2 Select three true statements about inventory reservations. (Choose three.)
A. A reservation is a link between a supply source and a demand source.
B. For on-hand Inventory supply, thereisonly one type of reservation called high-level reservation.
C. For on-hand inventory supply, thereisonly one type of reservation called low-level reservation.
D. Reservations can be created only by Oracle applications or via forms. They cannot
beimportedfrom third-party applications.
E. A reservation creates a permanent data link between a supply source and a demand source, and
represents a guaranteed allotment of material to a specified demandsource.
F. Item reservations prevent the allocation of material you previously set aside for a sales order, account,
account alias, inventory allotment, user-defined source, process batch components or,
Oracle Complex Maintenance and Repair Overhaul work order components.
G. Item reservations allow the allocation of material you previously set aside for a sales order, account,
account alias, inventory allotment, user-defined source, process batch components or,
Oracle Complex Maintenance and Repair Overhaul work order components as long as the quantity is not
negative.
Answer: A,E,F

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NO.3 XYZ Is a Chemicalmanufacturing company. On a daily basis, it produces 100 kilos of Item A from a
single production batch.
100 kilos of itemAmanufactured from a single batch has a single expiration date. However, the purity of
item A varies as follows:
Category 1: 95%
Category 2: 85%
Category 3: 50%
From an implementation perspective, which setup or process would meet this requirement?
A. Enable lot control. Map three categories asco products.
B. Enable lot control for Item A. Create three lots to represent the categories.
C. Enable lot control for item A. Create three child lots and link them with the parent lot.
D. Enable lot and grade control for item A. Have three categories mapped with grades.
E. Enable lot and serial control for item A. Create one lot and three categories that are mapped with serial
numbers.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-519 examen   1Z0-519

NO.4 Which three statements are true about the item master? (Choose three.)
A. Itispossible to copy items across item master organizations.
B. The item master organization is the centralized repository for ail items in different organizations.
C. It is possible to associate items in one item master organization with another item master organization.
D. When an attribute control is set at the item master level, updates are not allowed at the item or
organization level.
E. There is no functional or technical difference between the item master organization and other
organizations while transacting on an item.
F. When an attribute control is set at the item master level, updates can still be made at the item or
organization level but these updates would not propagate back up to the item master level.
Answer: B,D,E

Oracle examen   1Z0-519 examen   1Z0-519 examen   1Z0-519

NO.5 Your customer is planning to dose the accounting period in Inventory. Before closing the period, the
customer would like toviewthe total number of pendingtransactionsin one form.
Whichform would provide this Information?
A. Pending Status
B. View MaterialTransactions
C. FindPendingTransactions
D. Transaction Open Interface
E. InventoryAccountingPeriod
Answer: E

Oracle examen   1Z0-519   1Z0-519   1Z0-519

NO.6 Which two functional areas have default category sets? (Choose two.)
A. Planning, Engineering, Costing
B. Purchasing, Payables, Inventory
C. Inventory, Purchasing, Bill of Materials
D. Order Management, Inventory, Purchasing
E. Inventory, Bill of Materials, Work in Process
F. Planning, Order Management, General Ledger
G. Order Management, Inventory, Work in Process
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which three statements are true about ABC analysis.? (Choose three,)
A. theABC classisan Item attribute.
B. There can be only three classes A, B, and C.
C. anABC class must be assigned to at least one ABC group.
D. ABC classes can be used to groupItems for planning purposes.
E. ABC classes can be used toidentifythe value groupings to which your Items belong.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.8 Beyond the shelf life days, active lots become expired lots.Expired lots______.
A. Canbe reserved
B. Arenot allowed to do subinventory transfer
C. Arenot included in Inventory valuation reports
D. Cannotbe transacted and included in on-hand quantities
E. Arenot included in cycle and physical counting adjustments
F. Arenot considered as on-hand supply for min-max and re-order point planning
Answer: F

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NO.9 Oracle Inventory interacts with other Oracle applications by sharing information.
Which two pieces of information does Oracle Inventory receive from the Order Management application?
(Choose two.)
A. UOM information IS
B. shipping information
C. on-hand information
D. ATP supply information
E. reservations information
Answer: B,E

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NO.10 Which three statements are true about ABC Analysis and cycle count Classes? (Choose three.)
A. The hit/miss% for the Class overrides the hit/miss%ofthe cycle count header.
B. The hit/miss% for the cycle count header overrides the hit/miss%ofthe Class.
C. An ABC Analysis can be compiled for a sub inventory that is defined as a non-quantity-tracked sub
inventory.
D. An ABC Analysis can be compiled for nonasset (expensesubinventories for which quantities
aretracked).
E. In ABC Analysis, a quantity variance must always be submitted for approval, regardlessof thetolerance
levels
F. Positive and negative tolerances can be entered for each class, which will override the
tolerance at the cycle count header level
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.11 ABCCompanyuses serial numbers for the following transactions:
1.Purchase order receipt
2. Miscellaneous receipt
3. Account alias receipt
The company wants to reuse the same serial numbers for work order completion transactions.
Which setup would allow it to reuse the same serial numbers?
A. INV: Validate Returned Serial: No
B. INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes
C. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: No
D. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes
E. INV: Validate Returned Lot: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No
F. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No
G. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the correct sequence when defining units of measure (UOM)?
A. UOM Class, UOM, UOM Conversions
B. UOM Class, UOM Conversions, UOM
C. UOM Conversions, UOM Class, UOM
D. UOM Conversions, UOM, UOM Class
E. UOM, UOM Class, UOM Conversions
Answer: A

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NO.13 You are moving items from locator A to locator B within the same Inventory organization. Which two
types of inventory transactions are required? (Choose two.)
A. Move Order
B. Locator transfer
C. Subinventory transfer
D. WIP component Issue
E. Miscellaneous Receipt
F. WIP assembly completion
G. Interorganization transfer direct
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 What two conditions prevent you from reserving the Inventory? (Choose two.)
A. The inventory module is installed as Shared.
B. The items have a nonreservable material status.
C. TheInventory is in a Standard Cost inventory organization.
D. TheInventory is in an Average Cost inventory organization.
E. The reservation will cause the on-hand quantity to be negative.
Answer: B,E

Oracle   1Z0-519 examen   1Z0-519

NO.15 What are the prerequisites for performing an accurate ABC Compile for Inventory Items using the
Current on-hand value as the compile criterion?
A. Itemscosted only
B. Itemswith on-hand quantity only
C. Eitheritems with on-hand quantity or items costed
D. Both items with on-hand quantity and items costed
Answer: D

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Java Standard Edition 5 Programmer Certified Professional Upgrade Exam)

Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

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NO.1 }
and:
30. SubCalc sc = new SubCalc ();
31. System.out.println(sc.multiply(3,4));
32. System.out.println(SubCalc.multiply(2,2));
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails because of an error in line 31.
B. The code runs with no output.
C. 12
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 22.
E. An exception is thrown at runtime.
F. Compilation fails because of an error in line 21.
Answer: D

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15.Given:
12. NumberFormat nf = NumberFormat.getInstance();
13. nf.setMaximumFractionDigits(4);
14. nf.setMinimumFractionDigits(2);
15. String a = nf.format(3.1415926);
16. String b = nf.format(2);
Which two statements are true about the result if the default locale is Locale.US? (Choose two.)
A. The value of a is 3.1415.
B. The value of a is 3.14.
C. The value of a is 3.141.
D. The value of b is 2.
E. The value of b is 2.0000.
F. The value of a is 3.1416.
G. The value of b is 2.00.
Answer: F,G

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16.Click the Exhibit button.
Which statement is true about the two classes?
A. Compilation of class B will fail. Compilation of class A will succeed.
B. Compilation of class A will fail. Compilation of class B will succeed.
C. Compilation of both classes will fail.
D. Compilation of both classes will succeed.
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1Z0-854   1Z0-854   1Z0-854
17.Given:
11. class ClassA {}
12. class ClassB extends ClassA {}
13. class ClassC extends ClassA {}
and:
21. ClassA p0 = new ClassA();
22. ClassB p1 = new ClassB();
23. ClassC p2 = new ClassC();
24. ClassA p3 = new ClassB();
25. ClassA p4 = new ClassC();
Which three are valid? (Choose three.)
A. p2 = p4;
B. p2 = (ClassC)p1;
C. p0 = p1;
D. p2 = (ClassC)p4;
E. p1 = p2;
F. p1 = (ClassB)p3;
Answer: C,D,F

Oracle examen   1Z0-854   1Z0-854   1Z0-854
18.Given this method in a class:
21. public String toString() {
22. StringBuffer buffer = new StringBuffer();
23. buffer.append('<');
24. buffer.append(this.name);
25. buffer.append('>');

NO.2 int c = super.multiply(a, b);

NO.3 }

NO.4 public Hello() {

NO.5 }
What is the result?
A. null
B. An exception is thrown at runtime.
C. Compilation fails because of an error in line 5.
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 4.
E. Compilation fails because of an error in line 1.
F. test
Answer: F

Oracle examen   1Z0-854   1Z0-854 examen
8.DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Answer:

NO.6 return c;

NO.7 return buffer.toString();

NO.8 }
and:
30. Hello c = new Hello(5);
31: System.out.println(c.title);
What is the result?
A. The code runs with no output.
B. Hello
C. Hello World 5
D. Compilation fails.
E. An exception is thrown at runtime.
F. Hello World
Answer: D

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11.Given:
10. class Line {
11. public class Point { public int x,y;}
12. public Point getPoint() { return new Point(); }
13. }
14. class Triangle {
15. public Triangle() {
16. // insert code here
17. }
18. }
Which code, inserted at line 16, correctly retrieves a local instance of a Point object?
A. Point p = (new Line()).getPoint();
B. Line.Point p = Line.getPoint();
C. Point p = Line.getPoint();
D. Line.Point p = (new Line()).getPoint();
Answer: D

certification Oracle   1Z0-854   1Z0-854
12.Given:
11. // insert code here
12. private N min, max;
13. public N getMin() { return min; }
14. public N getMax() { return max; }
15. public void add(N added) {
16. if (min == null || added.doubleValue() < min.doubleValue())
17. min = added;
18. if (max == null || added.doubleValue() > max.doubleValue())
19. max = added;
20. }
21. }
Which two, inserted at line 11, will allow the code to compile? (Choose two.)
A. public class MinMax<?> {
B. public class MinMax<N extends Object> {
C. public class MinMax<N extends Integer> {
D. public class MinMax<? extends Object> {
E. public class MinMax<N extends Number> {
F. public class MinMax<? extends Number> {
Answer: C,E

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-854   1Z0-854
13.A developer is creating a class Book, that needs to access class Paper. The Paper class is deployed in
a JAR named myLib.jar.
Which three, taken independently, will allow the developer to use the Paper class while compiling the
Book class? (Choose three.)
A. The JAR file is located at $JAVA_HOME/jre/classes/myLib.jar.
B. The JAR file is located at /foo/myLib.jar and the Book class is compiled using javac -d
/foo/myLib.jar Book.java
C. The JAR file is located at /foo/myLib.jar and a classpath environment variable is set that
includes /foo/myLib.jar/Paper.class.
D. The JAR file is located at $JAVA_HOME/jre/lib/ext/myLib.jar..
E. The JAR file is located at /foo/myLib.jar and the Book class is compiled using javac -classpath
/foo/myLib.jar Book.java
F. The JAR file is located at /foo/myLib.jar and the Book class is compiled using javac -cp
/foo/myLib.jar/Paper Book.java.
G. The JAR file is located at /foo/myLib.jar and a classpath environment variable is set that includes
/foo/myLib.jar.
Answer: D,E,G

Oracle   1Z0-854 examen   1Z0-854 examen
14.Given:
10. public class SuperCalc {
11. protected static int multiply(int a, int b) { return a * b;}
12. }
and:
20. public class SubCalc extends SuperCalc{
21. public static int multiply(int a, int b) {

NO.9 Given:
1. interface TestA { String toString(); }
2. public class Test {
3. public static void main(String[] args) {
4. System.out.println(new TestA() {
5. public String toString() { return "test"; }
6. });
7. }

NO.10 title += " World";

NO.11 Hello();

NO.12 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Answer:

NO.13 Given:
12. import java.io.*;
13. public class Forest implements Serializable {
14. private Tree tree = new Tree();
15. public static void main(String [] args) {
16. Forest f = new Forest();
17. try {
18. FileOutputStream fs = new FileOutputStream("Forest.ser");
19. ObjectOutputStream os = new ObjectOutputStream(fs);
20. os.writeObject(f); os.close();
21. } catch (Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); }
22. } }
23.
24. class Tree { }
What is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. An instance of Forest is serialized.
C. An instance of Forest and an instance of Tree are both serialized.
D. Compilation fails.
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1Z0-854   1Z0-854 examen

NO.14 }
Which statement is true?
A. This code will perform well and converting the code to use StringBuilder will not enhance the
performance.
B. This code will perform poorly. For better performance, the code should be rewritten: return "<" +
this.name + ">";
C. This code is NOT thread-safe.
D. The programmer can replace StringBuffer with StringBuilder with no other changes.
Answer: D

Oracle examen   1Z0-854 examen   1Z0-854
19.DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Answer:
20.Click the Exhibit button.
What two must the programmer do to correct the compilation errors? (Choose two.)
A. change the wheelCount variable in Car to protected
B. insert a call to this() in the MeGo constructor
C. insert a call to this() in the Car constructor
D. insert a call to super(vin) in the MeGo constructor
E. insert a call to super() in the MeGo constructor
F. change line 3 in the MeGo class to super.wheelCount = 3;
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 int value;

NO.16 Given:
1. public class Boxer1{
2. Integer i;
3. int x;
4. public Boxer1(int y) {
5. x = i+y;
6. System.out.println(x);
7. }
8. public static void main(String[] args) {
9. new Boxer1(new Integer(4));

NO.17 public Hello(int value) {

NO.18 }

NO.19 title = "Hello";

NO.20 }
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails because of an error in line 5.
B. A NullPointerException occurs at runtime.
C. Compilation fails because of an error in line 9.
D. A NumberFormatException occurs at runtime.
E. The value "4" is printed at the command line.
F. An IllegalStateException occurs at runtime.
Answer: B

Oracle   certification 1Z0-854   certification 1Z0-854   1Z0-854
10.Given:
10. public class Hello {
11: String title;

NO.21 }

NO.22 Which two code fragments will execute the method doStuff() in a separate thread? (Choose two.)
A. new Thread() {
public void start() { doStuff(); }};
B. new Thread() {
public void run() { doStuff(); }};
C. new Thread(new Runnable() {
public void run() { doStuff(); }
}).start();
D. new Thread() {
public void start() { doStuff(); }
}.run();
E. new Thread(new Runnable() {
public void run() { doStuff(); }
}).run();
F. new Thread() {
public void run() { doStuff(); }
}.start();
Answer: C,F

Oracle examen   1Z0-854   1Z0-854   1Z0-854

NO.23 this.value = value;

NO.24 }

NO.25 Given:
20. public class CreditCard {
21.
22. private String cardID;
23. private Integer limit;
24. public String ownerName;
25.
26. public void setCardInformation(String cardID,
27. String ownerName,
28. Integer limit) {
29. this.cardID = cardID;
30. this.ownerName = ownerName;
31. this.limit = limit;
32. }
33. }
Which statement is true?
A. The ownerName variable breaks encapsulation.
B. The class is fully encapsulated.
C. The cardID and limit variables break polymorphism.
D. The code demonstrates polymorphism.
E. The setCardInformation method breaks encapsulation.
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which three statements concerning the use of the java.io.Serializable interface are true? (Choose
three.)
A. Objects from classes that use aggregation cannot be serialized.
B. The values in fields with the transient modifier will NOT survive serialization and deserialization.
C. It is legal to serialize an object of a type that has a supertype that does NOT implement
java.io.Serializable.
D. The values in fields with the volatile modifier will NOT survive serialization and deserialization.
E. An object serialized on one JVM can be successfully deserialized on a different JVM.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.27 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. ?
Answer:

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NO.1 Given the incomplete pseudo-code for a fork/join framework application:
submit(Data) {
if(Data.size < SMALL_ENOUGH) {
_________________(Data); // line x
}
else {
List<Data> x = _________________(Data); // line Y
for(Data d: x
______________(d); // line z
}
}
And given the missing methods:
process, submit, and splitInHalf
Which three insertions properly complete the pseudo-code?
A. Insert submit at line X.
B. Insert splitInHalf at line X.
C. Insert process at line X.
D. Insert process at line Y.
E. Insert splitInHalf at line Y.
F. Insert process at line Z.
G. Insert submit at line Z.
Answer: C,E,G

Oracle   certification 1Z0-804   1Z0-804

NO.2 Given the code fragment:
public class App {
public static void main (String [] args){
Path path = Paths.get("C:\\education\\institute\\student\\report.txt");
System.out.println("get.Name(0): %s", path.getName(0));
System.out.println ("subpath(0, 2): %s", path.subpath (0, 2));}
}
What is the result?
A. getName (0): C:\
subpath (0, 2): C:\education\report.txt
B. getName(0): C:\
subpth(0, 2): C:\education
C. getName(0): education
subpath (0, 2): education\institute
D. getName(0): education
subpath(0, 2): education\institute\student
E. getName(0): report.txt
subpath(0, 2): insritute\student
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-804 examen   certification 1Z0-804
Explanation: Example:
Path path = Paths.get("C:\\home\\joe\\foo");
getName(0)
-> home
subpath(0,2)
Reference: The Java Tutorial, Path Operations

NO.3 Given:
import java.util.*;
public class AccessTest {
public static void main(String[] args) {
Thread t1 = new Thread(new WorkerThread());
Thread t2 = new Thread(new WorkerThread());
t1.start(); t2.start; // line1
}
}
class WorkPool {
static ArrayList<Integer> list = new ArrayList<>(); // line2
public static void addItem() { // line3
list.add(1); // Line4
}
}
class WorkerThread implements Runnable {
static Object bar = new Object ();
public void run() { //line5
for (int i=0; i<5000;i++) WorkPool.addItem(); // line6
}
}
Which of the four are valid modifications to synchronize access to the valid list between threads t1
and t2?
A. Replace line 1 with:
Synchronized (t2) (t1.start();) synchronized(t1) (t2.start();)
B. Replace Line 2 with:
static CopyWriteArrayList<Integer> list = new CopyWriteArrayList<>();
C. Replace line 3 with:
synchronized public static void addItem () {
D. Replace line 4 with:
synchronized (list) (list.add(1);)
E. Replace line 5 with:
Synchronized public void run () {
F. replace line 6 with:
Synchronized (this) {for (in i = 0, i<5000, i++) WorkPool.addItem(); }
G. Replace line 6 with:
synchronized (bar) {for (int i= 0; i<5000; i++) WorkPool.addItem(); }
Answer: F

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NO.4 Given the code fragment:
public class DisplaValues {
public void printNums (int [] nums){
for (int number: nums) {
System.err.println(number);
}
}
}
Assume the method printNums is passed a valid array containing data. Why is this method not
producing output on the console?
A. There is a compilation error.
B. There is a runtime exception.
C. The variable number is not initialized.
D. Standard error is mapped to another destination.
Answer: D

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NO.5 To provide meaningful output for:
System.out.print( new Item ()):
A method with which signature should be added to the Item class?
A. public String asString()
B. public Object asString()
C. public Item asString()
D. public String toString()
E. public object toString()
F. public Item toString()
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which method would you supply to a class implementing the Callable interface?
A. callable ()
B. executable ()
C. call ()
D. run ()
E. start ()
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-804   1Z0-804   1Z0-804   1Z0-804   1Z0-804

NO.7 Given a language code of fr and a country code of FR, which file name represents a resource
bundle file name that is not the default?
A. MessageBundle_fr_FR.properties
B. MessageBundle_fr_FR.profile
C. MessageBundle_fr_FR.xinl
D. MessageBundle__fr__FR.Java
E. MessageBundle__fr__FR.Locale
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two codes correctly represent a standard language locale code?
A. ES
B. FR
C. U8
D. Es
E. fr
F. u8
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Given the code fragment:
DataFormat df;
Which statement defines a new Dateformat object that displays the default date format for the UK
Locale?
A. df = DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale (UK));
B. df = DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, UK);
C. df = DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale.UK);
D. df = new DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale.UK);
E. df = new DateFormat.getdatDataInstance (DateFormat.DEFAULT, Locale (UK));
Answer: C

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NO.10 Given the fragment:
public class CustomerApplication {
public static void main (String args[]) {
CustomerDAO custDao= new CustomerDAOMemoryImpl(); // Line 3
// ­ o t he r m e t hod
}
}
Which two valid alternatives to line 3 would decouple this application from a specific
implementation of CustomerDAO?
A. CustomerDAO custDao = CustomerDAO();
B. CustomerDAO custDao = (CustomerDAO) new Object ();
C. CustomerDAO custDao = CustomerDAO.getInstance();
D. CustomerDAO custDao = (CustomerDAO) new CustomerDAOmemoryImp1();
E. CustomerDAO custDao = customerDAOFactory.getInstance();
Answer: B,E

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NO.11 Given:
public class DoubleThread {
public static void main(String[] args) {
Thread t1 = new Thread() {
public void run() {
System.out.print("Greeting");
}
};
Thread t2 = new Thread(t1); // Line 9
t2.run();
}
}
Which two are true?
A. A runtime exception is thrown on line 9.
B. No output is produced.
C. Greeting is printed once.
D. Greeting is printed twice.
E. No new threads of execution are started within the main method.
F. One new thread of execution is started within the main method.
G. Two new threads of execution are started within the main method.
Answer: C,E

Oracle   1Z0-804   1Z0-804   1Z0-804

NO.12 Sam has designed an application. It segregates tasks that are critical and executed frequently
from tasks that are non critical and executed less frequently. He has prioritized these tasks based
on their criticality and frequency of execution. After close scrutiny, he finds that the tasks designed
to be non critical are rarely getting executed.
From what kind of problem is the application suffering?
A. race condition
B. starvation
C. deadlock
D. livelock
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-804   certification 1Z0-804   certification 1Z0-804

NO.13 Given the existing destination file, a source file only 1000 bytes long, and the code fragment:
public void process (String source, String destination) {
try (InputStream fis = new FileInputStream(source);
OutputStream fos = new FileOutputStream(destination)
) {
byte [] buff = new byte[2014];
int i;
while ((i = fis.read(buff)) != -1) {
fos.write(buff,0,i); // line ***
}
} catch (IOException e) {
System.out.println(e.getClass());
}
}
What is the result?
A. Overrides the content of the destination file with the source file content
B. Appends the content of the source file to the destination file after a new line
C. Appends the content of the source file to the destination file without a break in the flow
D. Throws a runtime exception at line***
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-804   certification 1Z0-804   1Z0-804   certification 1Z0-804

NO.14 Which code fragment demonstrates the proper way to handle JDBC resources?
A. Try {
ResultSet rs = stmt.executableQuery (query);
statement stmt = con.createStatement();
while (rs.next()) (/* . . . */)
} catch (SQLException e) {}
B. Try {statement stmt = con.createStatement();
ResultSet rs = stmt.executableQuery (query);
while (rs.next()) (/* . . . */)
} catch (SQLException e) {}
C. Try {
statement stmt = con.createStatement();
ResultSet rs = stmt.executableQuery (query);
while (rs.next()) (/* . . . */)
} finally {
rs.close();
stmt.close();
}
D. Try {ResultSet rs = stmt.executableQuery (query);
statement stmt = con.createStatement();
while (rs.next()) (/* . . . */)
} finally {
rs.close();
stmt.close();
}
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-804   1Z0-804   1Z0-804   1Z0-804

NO.15 Given:
import java.io.IOException;
import java.io.file.Path;
import java.io.file.Paths;
public class Path12 {
public static void main(String s[]) throws IOException {
Path path = Paths.get("\\sales\\quarter\\..\\qtrlreport.txt");
path.relativize(Paths.get("\\sales\\annualreport.txt"));
if(path.endsWith("annualreport.txt")) {
System.out.println(true);
} else {
System.out.println(false);
}
System.out.println(path);
}
}
What is the result?
A. false
\sales\quarter\ . . \qtrlreport.txt
B. false
\quarter\ . . \qtrlreport.txt
C. true
. . \ . . \ . . \ annualreport.txt
D. true
\ . . \ . . \annualreport.txt
Answer: A

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NO.16 ITEM Table
* ID, INTEGER: PK
* DESCRIP, VARCHAR(100)
* PRICE, REAL
* QUALITY, INTEGER
And given the code fragment (assuming that the SQL query is valid):
try {
String query = "SELECT * FROM Item WHERE ID=110";
Statement stmt = conn.createStatement();
ResultSet rs = stmt.executeQuery(query);
while (rs.next ()) {
System.out.println("ID: " + rs.getInt("Id"));
System.out.println("Description: " + rs.getString("Descrip"));
System.out.println("Price: " + rs.getDouble("Price"));
System.out.println("Quantity: " + rs.getInt("Quantity"));
}
} catch (SQLException se) {
System.out.println("Error");
}
What is the result of compiling and executing this code?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime
B. Compile fails
C. The code prints Error
D. The code prints information about Item 110
Answer: A

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NO.17 Given this error message when running your application:
Exception in thread "main" java.util.MissingResourceException: Can't find bundle for base name
MessageBundle, locale
And given that the MessageBundle.properties file has been created, exists on your disk, and is
properly formatted.
What is the cause of the error message?
A. The file is not in the environment path.
B. The file is not in the classpath.
C. The file is not in the javapath.
D. You cannot use a file to store a ResourceBundle.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Given:
class Deeper {
public Number getDepth() {
return 10;
}
}
Which two classes correctly override the getDepth method?
A. public class deep extends Deeper {
protected integer getDepth(){
return 5;
}
}
B. public class deep extends Deeper {
public double getDepth() {
return"5";
}
}
C. public class deep extends Deeper {
public String getDepth () {
}
}
D. public class deep extends Deeper {
public Long getDepth (int d) {
return 5L;
}
}
E. public class deep extends Deeper {
public short getDepth () {
return 5;
}
}
Answer: A,E

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NO.19 Which two demonstrate the valid usage of the keyword synchronized?
A. interface ThreadSafe {
synchronized void doIt();
}
B. abstract class ThreadSafe {
synchronized abstract void doIt();
}
C. class ThreadSafe {
synchronized static void soIt () {}
}
D. enum ThreadSafe {
ONE, TWO, Three;
Synchronized final void doIt () {}
}
Answer: C

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NO.20 Give:
Class Employee {
public int checkEmail() {/* . . . */}
public void sendEmail (String email) {/* . . . */}
public Boolean validDateEmail(){/* . . . */}
public void printLetter (String letter) {/* . . . */}
}
Which is correct?
A. Employee takes advantage of composition.
B. Employee "has-an" Email.
C. Employee "is-a" LetterPrinter.
D. Employee has low cohesion.
Answer: D

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