2014年4月30日星期三

Meilleur Oracle 1z1-061 test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: 1z1-061
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 12c: SQL Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the product, component, and PDT_COMP
tables.
In product table, PDTNO is the primary key.
In component table, COMPNO is the primary key.
In PDT_COMP table, <PDTNO, COMPNO) is the primary key, PDTNO is the foreign key referencing
PDTNO in product table and COMPNO is the foreign key referencing the COMPNO in component
table.
You want to generate a report listing the product names and their corresponding component names,
if the component names and product names exist.
Evaluate the following query:
SQL>SELECT pdtno, pdtname, compno, compname
FROM product _____________ pdt_comp
USING (pdtno) ____________ component USING (compno)
WHERE compname IS NOT NULL;
Which combination of joins used in the blanks in the above query gives the correct output?
A. JOIN; JOIN
B. FULL OUTER JOIN; FULL OUTER JOIN
C. RIGHT OUTER JOIN; LEFT OUTER JOIN
D. LEFT OUTER JOIN; RIGHT OUTER JOIN
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which three tasks can be performed using SQL functions built into Oracle Database?
A. Displaying a date in a nondefault format
B. Finding the number of characters in an expression
C. Substituting a character string in a text expression with a specified string
D. Combining more than two columns or expressions into a single column in the output
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 You need to create a table for a banking application. One of the columns in the table has the
following requirements:
1. You want a column in the table to store the duration of the credit period.
2) The data in the column should be stored in a format such that it can be easily added and
subtracted with date data type without using conversion functions.
3) The maximum period of the credit provision in the application is 30 days.
4) The interest has to be calculated for the number of days an individual has taken a credit for.
Which data type would you use for such a column in the table?
A. DATE
B. NUMBER
C. TIMESTAMP
D. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
E. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
Answer: D

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NO.4 Evaluate the following SQL statement:
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?
A. It executes successfully and displays rows in the descending order of PROMO_CATEGORY .
B. It produces an error because positional notation cannot be used in the order by clause with set
operators.
C. It executes successfully but ignores the order by clause because it is not located at the end of the
compound statement.
D. It produces an error because the order by clause should appear only at the end of a compound
query-that is, with the last select statement.
Answer: D

Oracle   1z1-061   1z1-061

NO.5 Which normal form is a table in if it has no multi-valued attributes and no partial
dependencies?
A. First normal form
B. Second normal form
C. Third normal form
D. Fourth normal form
Answer: B

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NO.6 Examine the types and examples of relationships that follow:
1.One-to-one a) Teacher to students
2.One-to-many b) Employees to Manager
3.Many-to-one c) Person to SSN
4.Many-to-many d) Customers to products
Which option indicates the correctly matched relationships?
A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, and 4-d
B. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, and 4-b
C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, and 4-d
D. 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, and 4-c
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1z1-061   1z1-061   1z1-061

NO.7 In the customers table, the CUST_CITY column contains the value 'Paris' for the
CUST_FIRST_NAME 'Abigail'.
Evaluate the following query:
What would be the outcome?
A. Abigail PA
B. Abigail Pa
C. Abigail IS
D. An error message
Answer: B

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NO.8 View the Exhibit and evaluate the structure and data in the CUST_STATUS table.
You issue the following SQL statement:
Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above query?
A. It produces an error because the AMT_SPENT column contains a null value.
B. It displays a bonus of 1000 for all customers whose AMT_SPENT is less than CREDIT_LIMIT.
C. It displays a bonus of 1000 for all customers whose AMT_SPENT equals CREDIT_LIMIT, or
AMT_SPENT is null.
D. It produces an error because the TO_NUMBER function must be used to convert the result of the
NULLIF function before it can be used by the NVL2 function.
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1z1-061   1z1-061   1z1-061 examen
Explanation:
The NULLIF Function The NULLIF function tests two terms for equality. If they are equal the function
returns a null, else it returns the first of the two terms tested. The NULLIF function takes two
mandatory parameters of any data type. The syntax is NULLIF(ifunequal, comparison_term), where
the parameters ifunequal and comparison_term are compared. If they are identical, then NULL is
returned. If they differ, the ifunequal parameter is returned.

NO.9 View the Exhibit for the structure of the student and faculty tables.
You need to display the faculty name followed by the number of students handled by the faculty at
the base location.
Examine the following two SQL statements:
Which statement is true regarding the outcome?
A. Only statement 1 executes successfully and gives the required result.
B. Only statement 2 executes successfully and gives the required result.
C. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give different results.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give the same required result.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Examine the structure proposed for the transactions table:
Which two statements are true regarding the creation and storage of data in the above table
structure?
A. The CUST_STATUS column would give an error.
B. The TRANS_VALIDITY column would give an error.
C. The CUST_STATUS column would store exactly one character.
D. The CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column would not be able to store decimal values.
E. The TRANS_VALIDITY column would have a maximum size of one character.
F. The TRANS_DATE column would be able to store day, month, century, year, hour, minutes,
seconds, and fractions of seconds
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
VARCHAR2(size)Variable-length character data (A maximum size must be specified:
minimum size is 1; maximum size is 4, 000.)
CHAR [(size)] Fixed-length character data of length size bytes (Default and minimum size
is 1; maximum size is 2, 000.)
NUMBER [(p, s)] Number having precision p and scale s (Precision is the total number of
decimal digits and scale is the number of digits to the right of the decimal point; precision
can range from 1 to 38, and scale can range from -84 to 127.)
DATE Date and time values to the nearest second between January 1, 4712 B.C., and
December 31, 9999 A.D.

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-485
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Exadata Database Machine Models X3-2 and X3-8 Implementation Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 71 Q&As

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NO.1 Exadata Database Machine offers an Intelligent Platform Management Interface for the
various components in the Exadata product. Which option is true?
A. IPMI can be used to remotely start and stop servers.
B. IPMI can be used to remotely log in to the operating system.
C. IPMI commands can be executed by using SNMP traps.
D. IPMI settings can be secured by backing up the Oracle Linux installation on the storage system.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
IPMI - short for Intelligent Platform Management Interface - is an interface standard that allows
remote management of a server from another using standardized interface. The servers in the
Exadata Database Machine follow that. It's not an Exadata command but rather a general Linux one.
To power on a cell or database server, issue this from another server: # ipmitool -H prolcel01-ilom
-U root chassis power on
To stop a server, use the shutdown command. To stop immediately and keep it down, i.e. not reboot,
execute:# shutdown -h -y now

NO.2 Which two statements are true about enabling write-back flash cache?
A. When enabling write-back flash cache in a non rolling manner, it is important to ensure that
asmdeactivatonoutcome is set to YES and asmModestatus is set to ONLINE for all grid disks.
B. Before using write-back flash cache, you need to verify the minimum required versions.
C. Before write back-flash cache is enabled, you need to drop the Flash Cache first.
D. The setting flashCacheMode should be set to writeback by updating cellinit.ora and restarting
cellsrv.
E. When enabling write-back flash cache in a rolling manner, dcli should be used to inactivate the
grid disks on all cells first.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
B: Exadata storage version 11.2.3.2.1 is the minimum version required to use this write back flash
cache option.
C: Steps for Enabling Write back flash cache:
First of all, you don't need the stop CRS or database (This is ROLLING method) ,you can do it cell
by cell.
*drop flashcache
*Be sure asmdeactivationoutcome is YES is before disabling grid disk

NO.3 Consider the following software changes that are performed manually on a Linux server:
1.Changes for Linux kernel firewall configuration
2.Changes for custom performance monitoring tools
3.Changes for security scan tools
4.Changes for Linux system performance optimization
Which of the software changes listed are permitted on Exadata Storage Servers?
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
B. only 3 '
C. none
D. only 2
E. only 1 and 2
F. only 2 and 3
Answer: E

Oracle examen   1z0-485   1z0-485   1z0-485
Explanation:
1. The Storage Server Patch is responsible for keeping our cell nodes always up-todate, fixing
possible problems, and this patch includes different component patches, like kernel patches,
firmware, operation system, etc... for the Storage Server. Incorrect: 3,4: security scan tools changes
and Linux system performance optimization changes would be on the database server.

NO.4 Consider this CellCLI command:
CellCLI> CREATE GRIDDISK ALL HARDDISK PREFIX=data, size=423G;
Which two statements describe what happens when you execute this command?
A. It creates one 423 GB grid disk on the first available cell hard disk.
B. It creates one 423 GB grid disk on each available cell hard disk.
C. It creates grid disks on the outermost 423 GB that is available on each hard disk.
D. It creates grid disks on the innermost 423 GB that is available on each hard disk.
E. It creates an Exadata Smart Flash Cache on all flash drives.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
* Example: CellCLI> create griddisk all harddisk prefix=temp_dg, size=570G This command will
create 12 Griddisks, each of 570G in size from the outer (fastest) sectors of the underlying Harddisks.
It fills up the first 2 Celldisks entirely, because they have just 570G space free - the rest is already
consumed by the OS partition.
8. You get a Host Unreachable error when you attempt to connect to a server through a network
terminal command line. What are two other ways in which you can connect?
A. Use the ILOM Web GUI.
B. Use the dcli command at the root prompt on a database node.
C. Attach a terminal device to the back panel of the server with a serial cable.
D. Connect by using SQL *Plus.
E. Log in as root on the database node using the Net1 IP address.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
In addition to gaining shell access via SSH to manage your Exadata servers, you can also access them
from the Integrated Lights Out Management (ILOM) console or KVM console.
and should typically not require modifications unless you have changed network information inside
your database machine.
Note: A KVM switch (with KVM being an abbreviation for "keyboard, video and mouse") is a
hardware device that allows a user to control multiple computers from one or more[1] keyboard,
video monitor and mouse. Although multiple computers are connected to the KVM, typically a
smaller number of computers can be controlled at any given time
9. Identify three best practices for applying asmdeactivationoutcome es on Exadata Database
Servers and Exadata Storage Servers?
A. Backing up database servers and storage cells is not recommended before performing planned
maintenance.
B. Database server updates can be rolled back using the the "yum downgrade" procedure.
C. Bundle patches do not require testing before being installed on a production system.
D. It is recommended that Exadata systems with Data Guard configured use the "Standby First"
patching approach.
E. Patching should never be interrupted due to a connection drop. It is therefore recommended that
you use VNC or the screen utility.
F. Before patching cells in a rolling manner, you must check asmdeactivationoutcome amModestatus
and make sure that cells on all disks are online and that disks can be deactivated.
Answer: D,E,F

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10. The mpstat output from OS Watcher shows a database node as being 90% idle on an average.
What would you do to get a full picture of CPU utilization on the entire Exadata RAC cluster?
A. Average the mpstat id1 output from all the nodes.
B. Ask application users if they have noticed a slowdown in screen response.
C. Look for an increase in batch job servicing times.
D. A & B above
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer has three databases named CC. FIN, and DW. The CC database is for their
CallCenter. Even a slight decrease in the response time of the database would mean more people
"on hold" in their data center. The orders received through the CallCenter are stored in the Finance
(FIN) database. Both databases, CC and FIN, serve as sources for the Data Warehouse (DW)
database. All databases use the same Automatic Storage Management (ASM) diskgroup and
therefore, the same physical disks on Exadata storage. The customer wants to dynamically control
the resources that are available for the CallCenter database because this has direct impact on their
operations?
Which option should be implemented?
A. DBRM on the CC database
B. DBRM on all the databases
C. IORM, because DBRM cannot be changed for an existing session
D. IORM and DBRM
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Using the Database Resource Manager, you can: Distribute available processing resources by
allocating percentages of CPU time to different users and applications. In a data warehouse, a
higher percentage may be given to ROLAP (relational on-line analytical processing) applications than
to batch jobs.

NO.6 Consider the following setup:
User A1 belongs to resource group High on Database A.
User B2 belongs to resource group Low on Database B.
User C3 is a user on Database C without any DBRM setup.
DBRM setup:
Database A: Resource group High gets 80% and Low gets 20%.
Database B: Resource group High gets 60% and Low gets 40%.
IORM setup:
Database A: Share=20, limit=5
Database B: Share=30, limit=10
Database C: 5 shares
Total number of shares in the IORM setup = 100
What percent of I/O will each database user theoretically be using when the Exadata storage unit
I/O throughout is used 100% and no other databases but A, B, and C are running?
A. Al = 36%, B2=18%, and C3=9%
B. Al = 33%, B2=33%, and C3=33%
C. AI = 10%, B2=5%, and C3=20%
D. Al = 8%, B2=12%, and C3=5%
E. Al = 5%, B2=10%, and C3=85%
Answer: E

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Explanation:
IORM setup limits Database A to 5%, and Database B is limited to 10%, while
Database C has not IORM limit.
Not that the resource groups are for CPU allocation.

NO.7 Which is the best location to point your customer to, for finding the latest Exadata patches?
A. owner's guide
B. Patch database in MyOracle Support
C. MyOracle Support note 888828.1
D. MyOracle Support for database patches, ULN for OS patches, and Sun Support for Server and
InfiniBand patches.
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1z0-485   1z0-485
Explanation:
Before starting, we would like to share and note here two documents from My Oracle Support, aka
metalink. These notes must be the first place that you need to go to review before patching the
Exadata environment.
* (B) Database Machine and Exadata Storage Server 11g Release 2 (11.2) Supported Versions (Doc ID.
888828.1)
-This is for the second and third generation (V2 and X2) for Oracle Exadata, using Sun hardware.
* Database Machine and Exadata Storage Server 11g Release 1 (11.1) Supported Versions (Doc
ID. 835032.1)
* - This is for the first generation (V1) for Oracle Exadata, using HP hardware.

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Code d'Examen: OMG-OCUP-300
Nom d'Examen: OMG (OMG-Certified UML Professional Advanced Exam)
Questions et réponses: 134 Q&As

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NO.1 What determines which value an object flow edge chooses to move from the source? (Choose two)
A. transformation
B. upper bound
C. ordering
D. effect
E. weight
F. selection
Answer: D,F

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NO.2 Which stereotype CANNOT be used to elaborate the semantic intent of an Artifact instance?
A. <<library>>
B. <<executable>>
C. <<script>>
D. <<source>>
E. <<specification>>
Answer: E

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NO.3 When a component is deleted, what happens to objects in a component's namespace?
A. objects are deleted
B. only those objects that participate in shared aggregations are retained
C. objects continue to exist
D. contents of the component's namespace are promoted to its superclass
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which UML 2.0 Superstructure package reuses the InfrastructureLibrary package?
A. Classes::Core
B. CompositeStructures::Core
C. Structures::Kernel
D. Classes::Kernel
E. Kernel::Classes
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is wrong in this deployment diagram exhibit? (Choose two)
A. Icons are swapped.
B. Interface on Order should point up.
C. <<manifest>> arrow should have a dashed line.
D. <<manifest>> arrowhead should be hollow.
E. <<manifest>> arrowhead should be solid.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
A. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.
B. p is a port providing a system service.
C. p is a hidden port.
D. p is a behavior port.
Answer: C

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NO.7 In planning to describe (in UML) a middleware software package, a company recently acquired, which
class is most likely created to describe the package itself?
A. Manifestation
B. Device
C. DeploymentSpecification
D. ExecutionEnvironment
E. Artifact
Answer: D

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NO.8 What does the protocol conformance between two protocol state machines mean?
A. the specific state machine must abide by the behavior of the general state machine
B. all triggers in the two protocol state machines must be the same
C. the two protocol state machines must be the same
D. the general state machine must abide by the behavior of the specific state machine
E. the specific state machine must have the same number of states and transitions as the general
machine
Answer: A

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NO.9 In the exhibit, how many links are created by default when an instance of A is created?
A. two
B. four
C. none
D. eight
Answer: B

OMG   OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300 examen   OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300

NO.10 What is a protocol of an interface?
A. procedure that implements the communications-based behavioral features of the interface
B. kind of behavior that describes the implementation of the object that realizes the interface
C. kind of state machine that defines ordering constraints on the behavioral features of the interface
D. interaction specification associated with the interface
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is true about a model in UML 2.0?
A. cannot contain another model
B. can represent only software systems
C. is a kind of package
D. is a kind of component
E. can represent all system structures
Answer: C

OMG   certification OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300 examen   OMG-OCUP-300

NO.12 In the exhibit, what is NOT true of ReclassifyObjectAction?
A. It has an output pin providing exactly one object.
B. It refers to any number of old classifiers.
C. It refers to any number of new classifiers.
D. It has an input pin taking exactly one object.
E. The default value for replacing all old classifiers is false.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What are the ways that the UML metamodel reuses the InfrastructureLibrary package? (Choose two)
A. specializes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
B. stereotypes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
C. exports and generalizes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
D. imports and specializes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
E. is instantiated from meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
Answer: D,E

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NO.14 What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
A. p is a hidden port.
B. p is a behavior port.
C. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.
D. p is a port providing a system service.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports.?
A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
C. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
D. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
E. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the request.
Answer: A

OMG examen   OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300 examen   OMG-OCUP-300

NO.16 What is true about an InformationItem in UML 2.0?
A. is not an abstraction
B. can have generalization
C. can have associations
D. is not instantiable
E. can have features
Answer: D

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NO.17 How can UML be extended? (Choose two)
A. using Interface Definition Library (IDL)
B. using the Object Constraint Language (OCL)
C. using XML Metadata Interchange (XMI)
D. using profiles
E. reusing part of the UML infrastructure library and augmenting it with metaclasses and relationships
Answer: D,E

OMG examen   OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300 examen

NO.18 A ReplyAction always follows what action?
A. AcceptCallAction
B. AcceptEventAction
C. ReadExtentAction
D. CreateLinkObjectAction
E. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
Answer: A

OMG   certification OMG-OCUP-300   OMG-OCUP-300

NO.19 Which statements are true about OCL? (Choose three)
A. OCL is a query language.
B. OCL is a programming and procedural language.
C. OCL is a typed language.
D. OCL is a procedural language.
E. OCL is a specification language.
F. OCL is a programming language.
Answer: A,C,E

OMG examen   OMG-OCUP-300 examen   certification OMG-OCUP-300

NO.20 The OCL dot operator may NOT traverse which classifier property?
A. operations
B. association ends
C. queries
D. attributes
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 050-690
Nom d'Examen: Novell (Novell network management;netware 6.5)
Questions et réponses: 192 Q&As

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NO.1 You're configuring an SLP Directory Agent on your NetWare 6.5 server. You want to statically
configure your server to communicate with another Directory Agent whose IP address is 10.0.0.4.
This server resides on a different network segment than your server. Which of the following is the
correct command to enter in the SLP.CFG file to accomplish this?
A.DA=10.0.0.4
B.SLPDA=10.0.0.4
C.DA IPV4 10.0.0.4
D.DA IPV4, 10.0.0.4
E.SLPDA IPV4 10.0.0.4
F.SLPDA IPV4, 10.0.0.4
Correct:D

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NO.2 You just deleted the DATA volume from your NetWare 6.5 server. You realize that this was a
mistake and you need to restore it. By default, how long do you have before the volume is
automatically purged?
A.12 hours
B.36 hours
C.48 hours
D.72 hours
E.96 hours
F.It's too late, the volume has been purged. You must recreate it and restore data from a back up device.
Correct:E

certification Novell   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.3 Deployment Manager fails when run from the NetWare 6.5 Operating System CD on your
Windows 2000 Professional workstation with Novell Client 4.83 installed. What is the cause?
A.Deployment Manager requires Windows XP Home edition.
B.Deployment Manager is not compatible with Novell Client 4.83.
C.You must upgrade to Internet Explorer 6.0 or later on the workstation.
D.Deployment Manager is not compatible with Windows 2000 Professional.
E.Deployment Manager must be installed on the workstation before running the program.
F.The version of Deployment Manager on the Operating System CD only runs on Windows 95/98
workstations.
Correct:B

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NO.4 You recently completed a Remote Upgrade to NetWare 6.5 on a server located in your
organization's Baltimore, MD. office. You realize that you forgot to install MySQL on the server
during the upgrade. Which NetWare utilities can you use to remotely install this product? (Choose
2)
A.iMonitor
B.iManager
C.ConsoleOne
D.Deployment Manager
E.NetWare Administrator
F.NetWare GUI Install utility using Remote Manager
Correct:D F

certification Novell   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.5 You want to upgrade a NetWare 6 server with Support Pack 2 to NetWare 6.5. The server
hardware uses a Pentium III 500 MHz Celeron CPU, 512 MB RAM, an 8 GB hard disk drive with a
200 MB DOS partition, and a USB mouse. Can this server be upgraded?
A.Yes, the server meets all prerequisite requirements.
B.No, NetWare 6.5 requires a PIII 750 MHz CPU or later.
C.No, NetWare 6.5 isn't compatible with Celeron processors.
D.No, the server's CPU is too slow and the hard disk drive is too small.
E.No, the server's DOS partition is too small and USB mice aren't supported.
F.No, the server doesn't have enough RAM and must have Support Pack 3 or later applied.
G.No, the server's DOS partition is too small and must have Support Pack 3 or later applied.
Correct:G

certification Novell   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.6 Click the Exhibit button. You've configured your NetWare 6.5 server to function as a Dynamic
NAT router between two network segments, as shown in the exhibit. The workstations on the
private segment are running Windows 2000. The workstations on the public segment are running
Windows XP. A user on the public segment whose IP address is 209.5.1.2 wants to access a
shared folder on a workstation installed on the private segment whose IP address is 10.0.0.2. Will
the user be able to accomplish this?
A.No, Dynamic NAT doesn't support Windows shared folders.
B.No, Dynamic NAT isn't supported by Windows 2000 systems.
C.No, you must issue the SET ALLOW DYNAMIC PASSTHRU=ON command on the server first.
D.Yes, Dynamic NAT routing allows bi-directional shared folder access between segments.
E.No, Dynamic NAT doesn't allow hosts on the public segment to access hosts on the private segment.
Correct:E

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NO.7 Click the Point and Click button to begin. Click the Server Management Console management
task you would use to recover a forgotten pass phrase.
Correct:

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NO.8 What is another name for the server certificate?
A.WEP key
B.Key material object
C.Certificate authority
D.Certificate signing request
Correct:B

certification Novell   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.9 Which time server type adjusts its clock 50% per polling interval?
A.Master
B.Primary
C.Secondary
D.Reference
E.Single reference
F.Secondary reference
Correct:B

certification Novell   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.10 In a time provider group, which server carries the most weight when voting on a time?
A.Master
B.Primary
C.Reference
D.Secondary
E.Single reference
Correct:C

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NO.11 You are a regional network administrator remotely upgrading a NetWare 5.1 server to NetWare
6.5. The NetWare 5.1 server has 512 MB of RAM, a 180 GB RAID 5 disk array with a 1 GB DOS
partition, and Support Pack 6 installed. Your user object has the Supervisor right to the container
where the server resides and the Browse right to the root of the tree. Will the upgrade be
successful?
A.No, the DOS partition is too small.
B.No, the server doesn't have enough RAM.
C.Yes, the system meets all prerequisite requirements.
D.No, you must have the Supervisor right to the root of the tree.
E.No, you must first install Support Pack 7 on the NetWare 5.1 server.
F.No, you can't remotely upgrade a server that uses a RAID disk array.
G.No, you can't perform a Remote Upgrade on a NetWare 5.1 server. You must use an In-Place Upgrade.
Correct:D

certification Novell   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.12 Which statements are true regarding subordinate reference replicas? (Choose 2)
A.There can be multiple subordinate references per partition.
B.Subordinate references must reside on every server in the tree.
C.Subordinate references link a parent partition with its child partition.
D.Subordinate references can be changed to be a master replica without losing any information.
E.Subordinate references should be removed to help reduce traffic across the communication channel.
Correct:A C

certification Novell   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.13 In Public Key Cryptography, the _____________ key is used to decrypt an encrypted
transmission. Answer:
A.PRIVATE
Correct:A

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NO.14 Which parameter allows you to set the location in your eDirectory tree where user accounts
exist, allowing older versions of the Novell Client that aren't directory-aware to authenticate to the
server?
A.User Context
B.Primary Server
C.Bindery Context
D.Preferred Server
E.Emulation Context
F.Compatibility Mode Driver
G.NetWare 3 Emulation Mode
Correct:C

certification Novell   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.15 Which statements about using both SLP and configured lists for time synchronization are true?
(Choose 2)
A.Using both adds extra traffic on the network.
B.Using both provides fault tolerance for time synchronization.
C.Time doesn't synchronize if both SLP and configured lists are used.
D.Using both allows IP and IPX servers to synchronize with each other.
E.Using both shortens the amount of time it takes to synchronize time throughout the network.
Correct:A B

certification Novell   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.16 Your organization is implementing an e-commerce web site where external customers can shop
for and purchase products. It's imperative that you establish a secure web site to do this. Which
type of certificate authority should you use?
A.Public Certificate Authority
B.Internal Certificate Authority
C.External Certificate Authority
D.Integrated Certificate Authority
Correct:C

certification Novell   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.17 Which command will enable Transition Tracking System (TTS) on an NSS volume named DATA?
A.TTS
B.NSS /TTS=DATA
C.TTS VOLUME=DATA
D.NSS /TRANSACTION=DATA
E.NSS /TRANSACTIONTRACKING=DATA
Correct:D

certification Novell   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.18 You are upgrading a NetWare 6.0 server to NetWare 6.5. What command should you use to
mount the NetWare 6.5 Operating System CD as a volume on your NetWare 6.0 server?
A.CD MOUNT ALL
B.LOAD NTFS.NLM
C.LOAD NTFS.NSS
D.LOAD CDROM.NSS
E.LOAD CD9660.NSS
F.LOAD CD9660.NLM
G.LOAD ISO9660.NSS
H.LOAD ISO9660.NLM
I.MOUNT -T ISO9660
Correct:E

certification Novell   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.19 Which is an example of the single reference time synchronization method for a network that
has 15 NetWare 6 servers?
A.1 primary time server and 14 secondary time servers
B.2 primary time servers and 13 secondary time servers
C.1 single reference time server and 14 secondary time servers
D.2 single reference time servers and 13 secondary time servers
E.1 reference time server, 2 primary time servers, and 12 secondary time servers
F.1 single reference time server, 1 primary time server, and 13 secondary time servers
Correct:C

certification Novell   certification 050-690   050-690   050-690   050-690

NO.20 In which container is the organizational CA object found in your eDirectory tree?
A.KAP
B.NMAS
C.[ROOT]
D.Security
E.The same container where the server has been installed.
Correct:D

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Code d'Examen: 50-653
Nom d'Examen: Novell (Certified Novell Administrator 5.1)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 .Which Novell product will launch an application from server B when the primary
application server is down?
A. Monitor
B. Profiles
C. snAppshot
D. Application Launcher
Answer: D

Novell examen   50-653 examen   50-653

NO.2 .Which statement about NDS security is true?
A. NDS security does not use inheritance.
B. All rights flow from NDS to the file system
C. The supervisor object right cannot be blocked by an IRF
D. NDS security has two distinct sets of right object and property
E. NDS security is used to manage access to NDS objects, but not their properties.
Answer: D

Novell   50-653   50-653

NO.3 There are two key files used when utilizing UIMPORT. Which UIMPORT file describes
how data is imported into the directory?
A. Data
B. Control
C. Form
D. Import
E. Fields
Answer: B

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NO.4 .Which utilities allow you to copy a directory structure while maintaining all
NetWare information?(ChooseThree)
A. NetWare Administrator
B. NCOPY
C. FILER
D. DOS COPY command
E. NDIR
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 .What functionality does the Help Requestor provide?
A. Provide access to online documentation
B. Provide assistance with hardware installation.
C. Provides assistance with printer configuration
D. Provides user with contact information for reporting workstation problems.
Answer: D

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NO.6 .Which symbols initiate the external execution of an EXE file in a login script?
(Choose two)
A. *
B. #
C. @
D. %
E. ''
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 .What is accomplished by adding NAL.EXE to a login script?
A. It creates an application object
B. It associates application objects
C. It makes Application Launcher Window available
D. It installs the application and completes the discovery
Answer: C

Novell   50-653 examen   50-653 examen

NO.8 .Which toolbar buttons are used in the remote control viewing window? (Choose
Three)
A. Start button
B. Accelerated mode button
C. Full screen button
D. Navigation button
E. Application switcher button
Answer: A,D,E

certification Novell   50-653   certification 50-653   50-653

NO.9 Which roles can be assigned to a controlled access printer? (Choose Three)
A. User
B. Manager
C. Operator
D. Workstation
E. Administrator
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 .Which statement is true of a public access printer?
A. A public access printer has high security
B. A public access printer has a corresponding NDS object
C. A public access printer provides plug-and-print capabilities
D. A public access printer provides tighter administrative control
Answer: C

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NO.11 .If NAL and Workstation Manager are not installed, then which method of registering
workstations can be used?
A. Z.E.N. work schedule
B. Login script
C. NetWare Application Launcher
D. Remote
Answer: B

Novell   50-653 examen   50-653

NO.12 Which extension represents the certificate license files?
Answer: NLF

Novell examen   50-653   50-653

NO.13 .Which utilities salvage and purge files? (Choose Two)
A. FLAG
B. FILER
C. NCOPY
D. RENDIR
E. NetWare Administrator
Answer: B,E

Novell examen   50-653 examen   50-653 examen

NO.14 .Which attribute prevents files from being migrated?
A. Co
B. Dc
C. Dm
D. Ec
E. Ic
F. Nc
G. HCSS
Answer: C

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NO.15 .Identify the benefits provided by NDPS. (Choose Three)
A. Improves network performance
B. Allows for unidirectional communications
C. Reduces network printing problems
D. Allows administrators to create and configure printer objects manually
E. Reduces administration cost
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.16 .Which statement is true regarding small block sizes?
A. Small block sizes are best for large database records.
B. Small block sizes should be used if you enable blocksuballocation.
C. The server will require less memory to track the File Allocation Table.
D. The server will require more memory to track the Directory Entry Table.
Answer: D

Novell   50-653 examen   50-653   50-653

NO.17 .Which statement is true?
A. Rights for directories and files are the same.
B. File system security and NDS security are dependent upon each other.
C. NDS security regulates who can access files and directories in volumes.
D. A user does not need file system rights to edit files within the directory as
long as the user has the RW NDS object right to the volume.
Answer: A

Novell   certification 50-653   50-653

NO.18 .In which policy package or packages is the search policy contained?
A. User policy package
B. Container policy package
C. Workstation policy package
D. User and workstation policy packages
E. Workstation and container policy packages
Answer: B

Novell   certification 50-653   50-653 examen   50-653

NO.19 .Property rights assigned using the Selected Properties option will not be
inherited at a lower level in the tree unless the ________ property right is granted?
A. Read
B. Write
C. Compare
D. Inheritable
E. Add/Remove self
Answer: D

Novell   50-653 examen   50-653

NO.20 .A user has received the supervisor right to the server object. As the network
administrator of your company,
which of the following options would be worth checking to help determine where
this Supervisor right to the server is coming from? (Choose Two)
A. Check to see what effective rights [Root] has to the server object.
B. Check to see what effective rights the user object's has to the server object.
C. If the user is member of the group, check to see if that group has Supervisor
rights to volume
SYS.
D. Check to see if any inherited Rights Filters have been placed on the container
that the server object resides in.
E. Check to see if that user has been granted explicit trustee assignment to the
directory map object
Answer: A,B

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Code d'Examen: 50-664
Nom d'Examen: Novell (Novell edirectory design and implementation)
Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

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NO.1 What does DSMERGE allow you to do?
A.Create replicas
B.Create partitions
C.Rename the eDirectory tree
D.Configure time synchronization
E.Rename objects within the eDirectory tree
Correct:C

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NO.2 You are implementing an NDPS printing environment. Where is it recommended to place the
NDPS print manager object in the eDirectory tree?
A.Next to user objects
B.Next to the NDPS printer object
C.In the same container where the server object resides
D.At least one level higher than the printers it manages
E.In the same container as the user object that has administrative rights to manage it
Correct:D

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NO.3 What is a good recommendation to follow when designing partitions for lower layers in the tree?
A.Create a partition for each container.
B.Partition the Directory by function regardless of location.
C.Use organizational divisions and workgroups to define lower-level partitions.
D.Place all servers, including servers at different locations, in the same partition.
E.Partition the Directory with more partitions at the top and fewer partitions at lower-levels.
Correct:C

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NO.4 Which statement is true of queue-based printing?
A.The print server object must be associated with a volume object.
B.The printer object must be associated with a print server object.
C.The print queue object must be associated with a print server object.
D.The print server, print queue, and printer objects must all reside in the same container.
E.The print server, print queue, and printer objects must all reside in the same container as the
corresponding server object.
Correct:B

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NO.5 Which replica or replicas contain a complete copy of all object information of a partition?
A.Master
B.Master and filtered
C.Master and read/only
D.Master and read/write
E.Master,read/write, and read-only
F.Master, read/write, and filtered
G.Master, read/write, read-only, and subordinate reference
Correct:E

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NO.6 You are the network administrator for your company and are in charge of your company's
eDirectory design and implementation project. You have completed the project approach phase of
the eDirectory design cycle. Which tasks still need to be completed before you begin the
implementation phase? (Choose 2.)
A.Design the eDirectory tree
B.Fine-tune the eDirectory design
C.Determine accessibility needs
D.Plan a time synchronization strategy
E.Gather business information related to network design
Correct:A C

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NO.7 After you create object naming standards, what should be defined for the attribute standards?
(Choose 2.)
A.Which object types require attributes
B.Whether the attribute of an object is required
C.Whether the attribute of an object is purgeable
D.Whether the attribute of an object is unique from other object attributes
E.Whether the attribute of an object is a system attribute that is automatically populated by eDirectory
Correct:B E

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NO.8 What does the following WAN Traffic Manager policy control? TCPIP, NA
A.Prevents background traffic generated by TCP/IP
B.Prevents background traffic unless the traffic is generated by TCP/IP
C.Restricts TCP/IP traffic unless the traffic is in the same TCP/IP network area
D.Restricts TCP/IP traffic unless the traffic comes from a different TCP/IP network area
Correct:B

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NO.9 You have just created an eDirectory tree and installed 3 servers into the tree. The tree has one
partition. Server1, Server2, and Server3 were installed into the Corp container. Server2 crashed
and you removed it from the tree before you installed additional servers. The additional servers
installed in the tree were Server4, Server5, Server6, and Server7. Server4 and Server5 were
installed into the Prod container. Server6 and Server7 were installed into the Acct container. The
Corp, Prod, and Acct containers are children of the tree root. The servers were placed in the tree
in the following order: Server4, Server5, Server6, Server7. You haven't had the chance to manually
add replicas to any server. Which servers hold replicas?
A.Server1 and Server3
B.Server1, Server3, and Server4
C.Server1, Server3, Server4, and Server6
D.Server1, Server3, Server4, and Server5
E.Server1, Server3, Server6, and Server7
F.Server1, Server3, Server4, Server5, Server6, and Server7
Correct:B

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NO.10 In which eDirectory objects do WAN traffic policies reside? (Choose 2.)
A.The Admin object
B.The Server object
C.The LAN Area object
D.Any container object
E.The partition root object
Correct:B C

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NO.11 Your company has 15 sites connected by a WAN link to corporate headquarters. Corporate
headquarters has 50 servers and each of the 15 sites has 30 servers. You are implementing a
multiple time provider group time synchronization strategy. Which are considerations you should
make before implementing this strategy? (Choose 2.)
A.If possible, create local time providers.
B.There will be a single point of failure at each location.
C.You cannot exceed 7 primary time servers in your network.
D.Make sure each reference server will synchronize with the same external source.
E.The single reference time synchronization strategy will provide a better strategy for this network
structure.
Correct:A D

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NO.12 You have completed a tree merge and want to confirm the new tree name by ensuring that all
servers in the tree are configured to support the new tree. Which utility will provide you the status
of every server in the tree and the name of the tree it is servicing?
A.DSMAINT
B.DSMERGE
C.DSREPAIR
D.ConsoleOne
E.NDS Manager
Correct:B

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NO.13 A secondary server is not synchronized with a single reference time server. During the next
polling process, what percent of the time difference does the secondary time server adjust?
A.0%
B.16%
C.25%
D.50%
E.75%
F.100%
Correct:F

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NO.14 In which file do you configure time on a Linux server?
A.ntp.conf
B.init.conf
C.time.conf
D.tsync.conf
E.clock.conf
Correct:A

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NO.15 Examine the exhibit by clicking the Exhibit button. Shown in the exhibit is a partition and
replica table, and a partitioned eDirectory tree. Which servers automatically receive a subordinate
reference of the PR partition?
A.Serv2, Serv5, and Serv6
B.Serv2, Serv4, and Serv6
C.Serv3, Serv5, and Serv6
D.Serv2, Serv3, Serv5, and Serv6
E.Serv2, Serv3, Serv4, Serv5, and Serv6
Correct:C

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NO.16 You have just finished executing a tree merge. Which tasks are left to complete the tree merge
process? (Choose 2.)
A.Correct bindery services commands.
B.Update workstation configurations.
C.Delete and re-create volume objects.
D.Restore the taped backup of the file system.
E.Verify trustee assignments to the file system.
Correct:A B

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NO.17 What does WAN Traffic Manager control? (Choose 2.)
A.Events initiated by administrators or users
B.Server-to-server traffic generated by eDirectory
C.Server-to-server traffic generated by time synchronization
D.The amount of eDirectory traffic based on cost of traffic and time of day
E.Which servers the master replica server synchronizes to by using configured lists
Correct:B D

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NO.18 Perform the following drag-and-drop task. Begin by clicking the Drag-and-Drop button. When
you finish, continue to the next question by clicking the Next button. Listed are administrator
roles and their characteristics. Drag the administrator role to its characteristic.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice5
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice2

Novell   certification 50-664   50-664 examen   50-664 examen   50-664 examen

NO.19 You are getting ready to merge 2 eDirectory trees. What should be done before attempting to
merge trees? (Choose 2.)
A.Back up both eDirectory trees.
B.Rename the Admin user object in the target tree.
C.Remove the source server from all replica rings.
D.Use DSREPAIR to update the schema so it is the same on both servers.
E.Rename the first level container objects in both trees to be identical.
Correct:A D

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NO.20 Which DNS/DHCP object contains resource record sets for DNS root servers?
A.DNS Zone object
B.DNS Group object
C.DNS Locator object
D.DNS Name Server object
E.RootSrvrInfo Zone object
Correct:E

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2014年4月29日星期二

IBM P2080-088, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: P2080-088
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Unica Enterprise Marketing Operations Technical Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 55 Q&As

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NO.1 In Unica Marketing Operations, where does a user - who has permission ?go to view
a Plan's status,
Program areas, and security policy?
A.Settings menu
B.Attachments tab
C.Summary tab
D.Project home page
Answer: C

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NO.2 In Unica Marketing Operations, how many templates can a customer have for digital
assets?
A.One
B.Three
C.Five
D.Ten
Answer: A

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NO.3 In Unica Marketing Operations, which of the following is a requirement for linked
Programs and Plans?
A.Must have the same owner.
B.Must have the same security policy.
C.Must have the same status.
D.Must have the same effective date.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following data redistribution methods generally results in the fastest query
times?
A.Co-located joins
B.Single redistribution joins
C.Double redistribution joins
D.Broadcast joins
Answer: A

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NO.5 In Unica Marketing Operations, where does a user go to view the marketing object
types for a Project?
A.In the Workflow.
B.In the Project Summary Tab.
C.In the marketing object template.
D.On the marketing object list page.
Answer: D

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NO.6 In Unica Marketing Operations, what is/are the key capability/capabilities for Accounts?
A.Define the hierarchy of accounts and subaccounts.
B.Fund or allocate money to the account, at the beginning of a fiscal period.
C.Track estimated and actual withdrawals from those accounts, by time period.
D.All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.7 In a Unica Marketing Operations Project Details view, what tab displays all
modifications made to the
Project or Request since its creation?
A.Summary
B.Tracking
C.Analytics
D.Budget
Answer: C

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NO.8 In Unica Marketing Operations, a user can link to a Campaign only if:
A.The user is an administrator.
B.The user has both Unica Marketing Operations and Unica Campaign installed.
C.The user has Campaign permissions.
D.The user sets the Project to Linked status.
Answer: B

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NO.9 In Unica Marketing Operations, a user can generate single-object reports, such as
Revision History or
Approval Responses.Where are these reports available for Projects, Programs and Plans?
A.Workflow tab
B.Summary tab
C.Custom tab
D.Analysis tab
Answer: D

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NO.10 In Unica Marketing Operations, what type of budget planning is particularly useful if a
plan has
predictable expenses from year to year?
A.Bottom up budget.
B.Top down budget.
C.Master budget.
D.Cash budget.
Answer: B

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Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur IBM C2070-581

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Code d'Examen: C2070-581
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM FileNet Content Manager V5.1)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the Composite Platform Installation Tool?
A. A tool that allows you to install P8 components only.
B. A tool that allows you to install P8 on multiple servers.
C. A tool that allows you to install P8 components remotely.
D. A tool that allows you to install P8 components on a single server, including the middleware
applications such as the database and web application server software.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Consider the following distributed P8 configuration:
All object stores contain file storage areas and are configured for content based retrieval (CBR). A
complete offline backup of the system runs daily at 10 PM. If server A crashes at 2 PM and must be
replaced, how should the administrator recover the system?
A. Restore all files for server A from backup.
B. Restore all files for server A from backup and re-index the object stores.
C. Restore all files for server A from backup and restore the database files to server C.
D. Restore all files for server A from backup and restore the file storage files to the NAS device.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT reported to IBM FileNet Dashboard?
A. Remote procedure call counts and durations.
B. Number of documents stored in the Content Engine.
C. System specifications, operating system version, and product version.
D. Real-time graphing of performance data, including CPU load and memory utilization.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following actions can be performed within the query builder?
A. Execute Java code.
B. Search across object stores.
C. Perform content-based retrieval.
D. Save searches in an object store.
Answer: C

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NO.5 The Process Engine service user (pe_service_user) is used by the Process Engine to connect
to the Content Engine. What type of account should you create for the pe_service_user?
A. Database account.
B. Directory server account.
C. Application server account.
D. Operating system account.
Answer: B

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NO.6 How can you start and stop P8 components?
A. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager.
B. Command-line based instruction only for Unix.
C. Graphical user interface (GUI) only for Windows.
D. Graphical user interface (GUI) based or command-line-based instruction.
Answer: D

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NO.7 When using Workplace XT and a user is out of the office (e.g., vacation), where can they
specify an alternate person to receive their Process Engine work items?
A. Site Preferences.
B. Process Configuration Console.
C. Task Settings under User Preferences.
D. General Settings under User Preferences.
Answer: C

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NO.8 For documents in which a date based property is a primary identifier, which type of
partitioning will reduce query retrieval time?
A. Date partitioning.
B. Index partitioning.
C. Interval partitioning.
D. Collection partitioning.
Answer: D

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NO.9 In which two scenarios should the Content Consistency Checker be used? (choose two.)
A. Content Engine is performing slow.
B. If search templates are not working.
C. After restoring a storage area from backup media.
D. To troubleshoot Fixed Content Device connectivity.
E. If users are unable to view the content of a document when the content is stored in a file storage
area, even when they have view-content permissions on the document.
Answer: C,E

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NO.10 Which tool is used to create a connection point to an existing Process Engine isolated region?
A. Workplace XT.
B. Process Administrator.
C. FileNet Enterprise Manager.
D. Process Configuration Console.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: A2040-986
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: Creating IBM Lotus Notes and Domino 8.5 Applications with Xpages and Advanced Techniques )
Questions et réponses: 164 Q&As

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NO.1 Mary is posting a discussion database on the Web. She would like to give general
users Author access
to the database, as long as they identify themselves and have registered with her site. Which
one of the
following should Mary do to ensure that all users accessing her database are identified and
have Author
access?
A. Create an Authors field on her forms and set it to Anonymous.
B. Set the database ACL Default entry to No Access and set the Anonymous to Author.
C. Set the database ACL Default entry to Author and set the Anonymous to No Access.
D. Set the form security property, "Who can create documents with this form", to only allow
users in the
Author role.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Winnie is enhancing the interface on the Corporate Phone Book Web application. Ted,
the graphics
designer who is providing Winnie with the images for her Domino application, has suggested
that she use
image resource sets. What is a feature that Winnie can incorporate by using image resource
sets?
A. A vertical image set can be used to incorporate effects using the onmouseover,
onmouseout, and
onclick events of an image on an XPage.
B. A vertical image set can be used to incorporate effects using the Normal, Mouse-over,
Selected, and
Mouse-down image states of a Domino Web page image.
C. A horizontal image set can be used to add effects when a user hovers the mouse over an
image. For
example, the normal image could be replaced with a larger image when the mouse hovers
over it.
D. A horizontal image set can be used to add effects when a user hovers the mouse over an
image. For
example the normal image could be replaced with an image with different coloring when the
mouse
hovers over it.
Answer: D

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NO.3 David migrates an XPage application from his development environment to his test
server. When he
tests the application, his browser returns the HTTP 403 error message. What is the most
probable cause?
A. He was developing using Firefox but is now looking at the application in Internet Explorer.
B. The application is signed with a development ID. It needs resigning with an ID trusted to
run XPages on
the test server.
C. The test server is not running the HTTP task.
D. He is opening the application in the Lotus Notes client. XPages applications can only be
viewed on the
web.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Nancy is creating a Web application and she needs anonymous users to be able to
read content and
create certain documents. What does Nancy need to do?
A. Anonymous users cannot create documents if the ACL is set to Reader.
B. Anonymous must be set to Author in the ACL and forms must be blocked to Anonymous
users.
C. Nancy needs to create an Anonymous entry to the ACL with access set to Author. Then,
using
@Formula she needs to validate if a document is being created by an Anonymous user.
D. Nancy needs to create an Anonymous entry to the ACL with access set to Reader and the
option "Write
public documents." She also needs to make the forms Available to Public Access users.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which option best describes the benefits of being Ajax-enabled?
A. You do not need to use agents to interact with the server dynamically.
B. Content and code can be loaded when required, rather than when the page is initially
displayed.
C. Ajax functionality can be implemented with much less coding than a traditional Lotus
Domino web
application.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Jim is looking at the Properties dialog box for an agent. Which one of the following best
describes the
use of the "Allow user activation" option?
A. Allows users with Editor access or above in the ACL to run an agent
B. Allows users with Author access or above in the ACL to run an agent
C. Allows users with Editor access or above in the ACL to enable an agent
D. Allows users with Author access or above in the ACL to enable an agent
Answer: C

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NO.7 Juanes needs to import some data from a custom application not using a standard
database engine,
which is being migrated to a Lotus Notes/Domino application. How can he accomplish this
task?
A. Use Lotus Enterprise Integrator.
B. Import data using one of the built-in connection services like DECS or connectors.
C. Export the data to XML on the old application and import it using XMLT.
D. Export the data from the old application to one or more ASCII files and import them by
using
LotusScript file access methods.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Barney imports a WSDL file into a LotusScript script library, which generates code to
call the Web
service methods defined by the WSDL file. Where can he use this script library.?
A. Only in agents
B. Only in agents that run on the server
C. Only in agents and form or view actions
D. Anywhere that LotusScript can be used
Answer: D

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NO.9 Marge wants to track user preference information while users navigate through her
Web site, but does
not want to require users to authenticate when accessing the site. Which of the following
should she use
to track the user information?
A. Cookies
B. Servlets
C. User profile documents
D. The users must authenticate
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following statements describes the function of SSL?
A. SSL encrypts the database ahead of transmission by using a SOCKS proxy.
B. SSL encrypts the database by creating a certificate authority as a key ring.
C. SSL encrypts the transmission of HTTP by using the user's ID as an encryption key
D. SSL encrypts the transmission of HTTP by using a registered certificate as an encryption
key.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Joy wants to implement single sign-on for her Lotus Domino Web applications. What
does she need to
do?
A. Encode the Single Sign-On form in each database.
B. Enable "Use Single Sign-on" in the database properties.
C. Ensure that all servers are using the same certificate authority.
D. Update the "Session authentication" field in the server's configuration document.
Answer: D

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NO.12 To approve an expense report, Quy goes to a controlled-access section and marks
the Status field
"Approved". Status is a sign-enabled field. When is the signature attached?
A. Immediately
B. When the document is saved
C. When the document is mailed
D. When the document is encrypted
Answer: B

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NO.13 Josh needs to associate the Price and ProductName fields of the Sales database with
fields from the
Inventory table in a relational database. His company uses DECS. He has created a Data
Connection
Resource to handle the connection to the Inventory table. What is the next step to make this
connection
available to fields on the Product form?
A. From the Advanced tab of the ACL, select "Allow connection to external databases using
DCRs". From
the Defaults tab of the Product form properties dialog, click Browse by the Data Source
Options and
select the DCR.
B. From the Advanced tab of the database Properties, select "Allow connection to external
databases
using DCRs". From the Data Connection Resource properties, select the Product form under
"Connection
enabled for?
C. From the Advanced tab of the ACL, select "Allow connection to external databases using
DCRs". From
the Security tab of the Form Properties dialog, click Browse by the Data Source Options and
select the
DCR.
D. From the Basics tab of the Database properties, select "Allow connection to external
databases using
DCRs". From the Defaults tab of the Form Properties dialog, click Browse by the Data
Source Options
and select the DCR.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Monique's laptop was stolen. Monique had locally encrypted the databases on her
machine using
medium encryption. Which one of the following can unauthorized users do?
A. Nothing
B. Compact the databases
C. Read copies of the databases made through the operating system
D. Use their user ids to access local databases on Monique's workstation
Answer: A

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NO.15 Dierdre is periodically asked to update the Readers field in documents created with the
SalesOrder form.
If a person's name changes, they are no longer able to access documents they'd been able
to access in
the past. Dierdre would like the Readers fields to be automatically updated when someone's
name has
been changed in the Domino directory. How can she do this?
A. Open the Security tab of the SalesOrder Form properties. Place a checkmark next to
"Enable adminp
updates".
B. Open the Advanced tab of the database ACL. In the selection list for Action, choose
"Modify all
Readers and Authors fields".
C. Open the Security tab of the Database properties. In the selection list for Administration
Actions,
choose "Update all Readers and Authors fields".
D. Ask a Notes Administrator to enable "Maintain Reader/Author field consistency" on the
Security tab of
the server document for her application server.
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is the purpose of using XSLT in a Lotus Domino Web application?
A. To define what DXL should be available for export.
B. To allow a Web service to interact with a Java agent.
C. To display a view as HTML without using a Java applet.
D. To transform XML documents to HTML or even to another XML document.
Answer: D

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NO.17 DJ is developing his first Lotus Domino application. He wants to show a particular set
of data to
unauthenticated users and provide additional data to authenticated users. Which of the
following can DJ
use to determine whether the user is authenticated or not?
A. @WebName to get the current user's name
B. @UserName, which returns "Anonymous" for unauthenticated users
C. @IsAuthenticated to determine if the user is authenticated or not
D. @WebUserName, which returns an empty string ( "" ) when a user is not authenticated
Answer: B

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NO.18 When enabling his XPages application for mobile access, which best describes the
options Enrique
should consider?
A. The screen size means different navigation might be required.
B. XPages can be viewed without any additional changes on an iPhone or other iOS device.
C. It might be appropriate to include only a subset of functionality because of the different
screen size.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following describes the destination URL that is generated by Lotus
Domino when the user
enters */projects/cio/index.html as the URL?
A. /projects/cio.nsf/index?OpenPage
B. /projects/index.nsf/cio?OpenPage
C. /projects/projects.nsf/cio?OpenPage
D. /projects/cio.nsf/index.html}
Answer: A

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NO.20 An XPage application is mostly made up of the following elements:
A. Forms, views, subforms, pages, framesets, and agents
B. Forms, views, XPages, CSS and themes, and outlines
C. XPages only
D. Forms, views, XPages, custom controls, and CSS and themes
Answer: D

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