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Code d'Examen: S90-09A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Design & Architecture Lab)
Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

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NO.1 Service A is an entity service with a functional context dedicated to invoice-related processing. Service
B is a utility service that provides generic data access to a database.
In this service composition architecture, Service Consumer A sends a SOAP message containing an
invoice XML document to Service A (1). Service A then sends the invoice XML document to Service B (2),
which then writes the invoice document to a database.
The data model used by Service Consumer A to represent the invoice document is based on XML
Schema A. The service contract of Service A is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema B. The service contract for Service B is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema A. The database to which Service B needs to write the invoice record only accepts entire
business documents in Comma Separated Value (CSV) format.
Due to the incompatibility of the XML schemas used by the services, the sending of the invoice document
from Service Consumer A through to Service B cannot be accomplished using the services as they
currently exist. Assuming that the Contract Centralization pattern is being applied and that the Logic
Centralization is not being applied, what steps can be taken to enable the sending of the invoice
document from Service Consumer A to the database without adding logic that will increase the runtime
performance requirements of the service composition?
A.Service Consumer A can be redesigned to use XML Schema B so that the SOAP message it sends is
compliant with the service contract of Service A. The Data Model Transformation pattern can then be
applied to transform the SOAP message sent by Service A so that it conforms to the XML Schema A used
by Service B. The Standardized Service Contract principle must then be applied to Service B and Service
Consumer A so that the invoice XML document is optimized to avoid unnecessary validation.
B.The service composition can be redesigned so that Service Consumer A sends the invoice document
directly to Service B. Because Service Consumer A and Service B use XML Schema A, the need for
transformation logic is avoided. This naturally applies the Service Loose Coupling principle because
Service Consumer A is not required to send the invoice document in a format that is compliant with the
database used by Service B.
C.Service Consumer A can be redesigned to write the invoice document directly to the database. This
reduces performance requirements by avoiding the involvement of Service A and Service B. It further
supports the application of the Service Abstraction principle by ensuring that Service Consumer A hides
the details of the data access logic required to write to the database.
D.None of the above.
Answer:B

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NO.2 Service A is an entity service with a functional context dedicated to invoice-related processing. Service
B is a utility service that provides generic data access to a database.
In this service composition architecture, Service Consumer A sends a SOAP message containing an
invoice XML document to Service A (1). Service A then sends the invoice XML document to Service B (2),
which then writes the invoice document to a database.
The data model used by Service Consumer A to represent the invoice document is based on XML
Schema A. The service contract of Service A is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema B. The service contract for Service B is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema A. The database to which Service B needs to write the invoice record only accepts entire
business documents in Comma Separated Value (CSV) format.
Due to the incompatibility of XML schemas used by the services, the sending of the invoice document
from Service Consumer A through to Service B cannot be accomplished using the services as they
currently exist. Assuming that the Contract Centralization and Logic Centralization patterns are being
applied, what steps can be taken to enable the sending of the invoice document from Service Consumer A
to the database without adding logic that will increase the runtime performance of the service
composition?
A.The Data Model Transformation pattern can be applied so that the invoice document sent by Service
Consumer A is transformed into an invoice document that is compliant with the XML Schema B used by
Service A. The Data Model Transformation pattern can be applied again to ensure that the invoice
document sent by Service A is compliant with XML Schema A used by Service B.
B.The service composition can be redesigned so that Service Consumer A sends the invoice document
directly to Service B. Because Service Consumer A and Service B use XML Schema A, the need for
transformation logic is avoided. This naturally applies the Service Loose Coupling principle because
Service Consumer A is not required to send the invoice document in a format that is compliant with the
database used by Service B.
C.The Standardized Service Contract principle can be applied to the service contract of Service A so that
it is redesigned to use XML Schema A. This would make it capable of receiving the invoice document from
Service Consumer A and sending the invoice document to Service B without the need to further apply the
Data Model Transformation pattern.
D.None of the above.
Answer:C

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NO.3 The Client and Vendor services are agnostic services that are both currently part of multiple service
compositions. As a result, these services are sometimes subjected to concurrent access by multiple
service consumers.
The Client service is an entity service that primarily provides data access logic to a client database but
also provides some calculation logic associated with determining a client's credit rating. The Vendor
service is also an entity service that provides some data access logic but can also generate various
dynamic reports.
After reviewing historical statistics about the runtime activity of the two services, it was discovered that the
majority of concurrent runtime access is related to the processing of business rules. With the Client
service, it is the calculation logic that is frequently required and with the Vendor service it is the dynamic
reporting logic that needs to be accessed separately from the actual report generation.
Currently, due to the increasing amount of concurrent access by service consumers, the runtime
performance of both the Client and Vendor services has worsened and has therefore reduced their
effectiveness as service composition members. What steps can be taken to solve this problem without
introducing new services?
A.The Rules Centralization pattern can be applied by extracting the business rule logic from the Client
and Vendor services and placing it into a new Rules service. This will naturally improve the runtime
performance of the Client and Vendor services because they will no longer be subjected to the high
concurrent access of service consumers that require access to the business rules logic.
B.The Redundant Implementation pattern can be applied to the Client and Vendor services, thereby
establishing duplicate implementations that can be accessed when a service reaches its runtime usage
threshold. The Intermediate Routing pattern can be further applied to provide load balancing logic that
can, at runtime, determine which of the redundant service implementations is the least busy for a given
service consumer request.
C.The Rules Centralization pattern can be applied together with the Redundant Implementation pattern to
establish a scalable Rules service that is redundantly implemented and therefore capable of supporting
high concurrent access from many service consumers. The Service Abstraction principle can be further
applied to hide the implementation details of the Rules service.
D.None of the above.
Answer:B

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Code d'Examen: PW0-270
Nom d'Examen: CWAP (Certified Wireless Analysis Professional)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 What HT PPDU format is shown in the exhibit?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Non-HT format
D. Non-HT duplicate format
E. Dual Training Field format
F. ERP-OFDM format
Answer: A

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NO.2 In which 802.11 frames is the SSID present, provided the SSID is not removed through proprietary
software configuration by an administrator? (Choose 3)
A. Association Request
B. Reassociation Request
C. Probe Response
D. Disassociation
E. Authentication
F. Association Response
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 According to 802.11-2007, in what frame type(s) might you find the PMK Count and PMKID List fields?
A. All frames that include the RSN IE
B. Only (Re)Association Request frames
C. Beacon and Probe Response frames
D. EAPoL 4-Way Handshake frames
E. Authentication and Association Request and Response frames
Answer: B

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NO.4 Using the exhibit as a reference, answer the following.
STA1 sent a data frame to Mesh AP2 destined for a local file server on the same subnet with MAC
address 00:11:22:33:44:55. Mesh AP2's mesh forwarding algorithm determined that the frame should be
forwarded through Mesh AP1.
In the frame sent from Mesh AP2 to Mesh AP1, what is true of the contents of the MAC header? (Choose
3)
A. SA = Mesh AP2's MAC Address
B. RA = Mesh AP1's MAC Address
C. TA = STA1's MAC Address
D. DA = 00:11:22:33:44:55
E. To DS = 0
F. From DS = 1
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.5 What is the purpose of a PHY preamble.?
A. It provides the receiver(s) with an opportunity for RF channel synchronization prior to the start of the
PLCP header.
B. It communicates important information about the PSDU's length, rate, and upper layer protocol-related
parameters.
C. It provides a cyclic redundancy check (CRC) for the receiving station to validate that the PLCP header
was received correctly.
D. It indicates to the PHY the modulation that shall be used for transmission (and reception) of the PSDU.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statements are true regarding Beacons from an AP in an HT infrastructure BSS that is configured
with multiple WLAN profiles? (Choose 3)
A. Beacons can be disabled for security purposes.
B. The BSSID and Source Address are always the same.
C. The Destination Address is always FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF.
D. The Receiver address and the BSSID are always the same.
E. When the SSID is "hidden," the ESS subfield of the Capability Information field distinguishes one BSS
from another.
F. All Beacons generated by APs contain a TIM information element.
G. The Beacon interval must be the same for all WLANs (SSIDs) supported by a single AP
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.7 When a 5 GHz HT station in a 40 MHz BSS desires to protect a 40 MHz transmission from an OFDM
station using an RTS/CTS or CTS-to-Self exchange, what frame format is used for the RTS and/or CTS
frames?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Dual-CTS
D. Non-HT Duplicate
E. Phased Coexistence PPDU
Answer: D

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NO.8 In the frame decode shown, there are two sets of supported data rates. 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps are all
shown as "basic" data rates, and 6, 9, 12, 18, 24, 36, 48, and 54 Mbps are shown simply as supported
data rates.
What is true of "basic" data rates in this context?
A. The AP requires all client stations to support Basic rates in order to associate to its BSS.
B. The highest data rate set to Basic is automatically used to send broadcast traffic such as Beacon
frames.
C. Basic rates are optional data rates for the BSS, often used for assuring connectivity for legacy stations.
D. Basic rates are only used for multicast traffic, and do not affect unicast traffic.
E. Basic rates are defined in an AP's service set to specify mandatory data rates for all retry frames.
Answer: A

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NO.9 What IEEE 802.11 technology is illustrated by the exhibit?
A. Fragmentation
B. TCP Fragment Bursting
C. A-MSDU
D. A-MPDU E. U-APSD
F. Jumbo frames
Answer: C

CWAP   PW0-270   PW0-270

NO.10 Which statement is true regarding the Association Identifier (AID) used in IEEE 802.11 WLANs?
A. The AID has a maximum value of 2048, and is used to uniquely identify a wireless client station
associated with an access point.
B. The AID has a maximum value of 2007, and resides in the duration/ID field of a PS-Poll frame.
C. The client station is assigned an AID value in the 802.11 authentication response frame.
D. The AID field is present only in Beacons frames.
E. The AID is used by the access point in EDCA mode to reduce duplicate transmissions when sending
multicasts.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: HIO-201
Nom d'Examen: HIPAA (Certified HIPAA Professional)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 Performing a periodic review in response to environmental or operational changes affecting
the security of electronic protected health information is called:
A. Transmission Security
B. Evaluation
C. Audit Control
D. Integrity
E. Security Management Process
Answer: B

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NO.2 This transaction type may be used in three ways:
1.Reply to a Health Care Claim Status Request.
2.Unsolicited notification of a health care claim status.
3.Request for additional information about a health care claim.
A. 837.
B. 820.
C. 277.
D. 835.
E. 278.
Answer: C

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NO.3 The Privacy Rule gives patients the following right
A. Access to the psychotherapy notes.
B. Request an amendment to their medical record.
C. Receive a digital certificate.
D. See an accounting of disclosures for which authorization was given.
E. The use of a smart card for accessing their records.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Select the correct statement regarding the 834 -Benefit Enrollment and Maintenance
transaction.
A. It can not be used to transfer enrollment information from a plan sponsor to a health care
insurance company or other benefit provider.
B. It can be used by a health insurance company to notify a plan sponsor that it has dropped one of
its members.
C. It can not be used to enroll, update, or dis-enroll employees and dependents in a health plan.
D. A sponsor can be an employer, insurance agency, association or government agency but unions
are excluded from being plan sponsors
E. It can be used in either update or full replacement mode.
Answer: E

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NO.5 The Privacy Rule interacts with Federal and State laws by:
A. Establishing an orderly hierarchy where HIPAA applies, then other Federal law, then State law.
B. Defining privacy to be a national interest that is best protected by Federal law.
C. Allowing State privacy laws to provide a cumulative effect lower than HIPA4.
D. Mandating that Federal laws preempt State laws regarding privacy.
E. Establishing a 'floor" for privacy protection.
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which transaction covers information specific to accidents?
A. Accident Report.
B. First Report of Injury.
C. Health Care Claim.
D. Health Care Claim Payment/Advice.
E. Premium Payment.
Answer: B

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NO.7 An Electronic Medical Record (EMR):
A. Is another name for the Security Ruling
B. Requires the use of biometrics for access to records.
C. Is electronically stored information about an individual's health status and health care.
D. Identifies all hospitals and health care organizations.
E. Requires a P1<1 for the provider and the patient.
Answer: C

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NO.8 This final security rule standard addresses encryption of data,
A. Security Management Process
B. Device and Media Controls
C. Information Access Management
D. Audit Controls
E. Transmission Security
Answer: E

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NO.9 Ensuring that physical access to electronic information systems and the facilities in which they
are housed is limited, is addressed under which security rule standard?
A. Security Management Process
B. Transmission Security
C. Person or Entity Authentication
D. Facility Access Controls
E. information Access Management
Answer: D

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NO.10 The code set that must be used to describe or identify inpatient hospital services and surgical
procedures is:
A. ICD-9-CM, Volumes 1 and 2
B. CPT-4
C. CDT
D. ICD-9-CM, Volume 3
E. HCPCS
Answer: D

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NO.11 ABC Hospital implements policies and procedures to ensure that all members of
its workforce have appropriate access to electronic protected health information.
These policies and procedures satisfy which HIPAA security standard?
A. Security Management Process
B. Facility Access Control
C. Security Awareness and Training
D. Workforce Security
E. B Security Management Process
Answer: D

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NO.12 Implementation features of the Security Management Process include which one of the
following?
A. Power Backup plan
B. Data Backup Plan
C. Security Testing
D. Risk Analysis
E. Authorization and/or Supervision
Answer: D

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NO.13 The Privacy Rule has broad administrative requirements.
Which one of the following requirements is defined under the Privacy Rule?
A. Designate a security officer.
B. Document termination procedures.
C. Use biometrics to authenticate transactions.
D. Deploy tokens and smart cards to all medical personnel.
E. Verify that business associates treat patient information respectfully.
Answer: E

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NO.14 The scope of the Privacy Rule includes:
A. All Employers.
B. The Washington Publishing Company
C. Disclosure of non-identifiable demographics.
D. Oral disclosure of PHI.
E. The prevention of use of de-identified information.
Answer: D

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NO.15 The transaction number assigned to the Health Care Claim Payment/Advice transaction is:
A. 270
B. 276
C. 834
D. 835
E. 837
Answer: D

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NO.16 The Privacy Rule's penalties for unauthorized disclosure:
A. Imposes fines and imprisonment as civil penalties for violations.
B. Limits penalties to covered entities and their business associates.
C. Imposes criminal penalties for noncompliance with standards.
D. Limits imprisonment to a maximum often years.
E. Is $1000 per event of disclosure.
Answer: D

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Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Certified Intrusion Analyst)
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NO.1 Which of the following proxy servers is also referred to as transparent proxies or forced proxies?
A. Tunneling proxy server
B. Reverse proxy server
C. Anonymous proxy server
D. Intercepting proxy server
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is known as a message digest?
A. Hash function
B. Hashing algorithm
C. Spider
D. Message authentication code
Answer: A

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NO.3 Andrew works as a System Administrator for NetPerfect Inc. All client computers on the network run on
Mac OS X. The Sales Manager of the company complains that his MacBook is not able to boot. Andrew
wants to check the booting process. He suspects that an error persists in the bootloader of Mac OS X.
Which of the following is the default bootloader on Mac OS X that he should use to resolve the issue?
A. LILO
B. BootX
C. NT Loader
D. GRUB
Answer: B

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NO.4 Adam works as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator. He wants to investigate a
suspicious email that is sent using a Microsoft Exchange server. Which of the following files will he review
to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Checkpoint files
B. EDB and STM database files
C. Temporary files
D. cookie files
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 Adam works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator in a law firm. He has been assigned with
his first project. Adam collected all required evidences and clues. He is now required to write an
investigative report to present before court for further prosecution of the case. He needs guidelines to
write an investigative report for expressing an opinion. Which of the following are the guidelines to write
an investigative report in an efficient way?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. All ideas present in the investigative report should flow logically from facts to conclusions.
B. Opinion of a lay witness should be included in the investigative report.
C. The investigative report should be understandable by any reader.
D. There should not be any assumptions made about any facts while writing the investigative report.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 Adam works as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator. A project has been assigned
to him to investigate a multimedia enabled mobile phone, which is suspected to be used in a cyber crime.
Adam uses a tool, with the help of which he can recover deleted text messages, photos, and call logs of
the mobile phone. Which of the following tools is Adam using?
A. FAU
B. FTK Imager
C. Galleta
D. Device Seizure
Answer: D

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NO.7 Allen works as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator. A project has been assigned to
him to investigate a computer, which is used by the suspect to sexually harass the victim using instant
messenger program. Suspect's computer runs on Windows operating system. Allen wants to recover
password from instant messenger program, which suspect is using, to collect the evidence of the crime.
Allen is using Helix Live for this purpose. Which of the following utilities of Helix will he use to accomplish
the task?
A. Asterisk Logger
B. Access PassView
C. Mail Pass View
D. MessenPass
Answer: D

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NO.8 Mark works as a Network Security Administrator for BlueWells Inc. The company has a
Windowsbased network. Mark is giving a presentation on Network security threats to the newly recruited
employees of the company. His presentation is about the External threats that the company recently faced
in the past. Which of the following statements are true about external threats?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. These are the threats that originate from outside an organization in which the attacker attempts to gain
unauthorized access.
B. These are the threats that originate from within the organization.
C. These are the threats intended to flood a network with large volumes of access requests.
D. These threats can be countered by implementing security controls on the perimeters of the network,
such as firewalls, which limit user access to the Internet.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.9 Which of the following statements about a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It can detect events scattered over the network.
B. It can handle encrypted and unencrypted traffic equally.
C. It cannot detect events scattered over the network.
D. It is a technique that allows multiple computers to share one or more IP addresses.
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 Adam works as a Security Administrator for Umbrella Inc. A project has been assigned to him to
secure access to the network of the company from all possible entry points. He segmented the network
into several subnets and installed firewalls all over the network. He has placed very stringent rules on all
the firewalls, blocking everything in and out except ports that must be used.
He does need to have port 80 open since his company hosts a website that must be accessed from the
Internet. Adam is still worried about programs like Hping2 that can get into a network through covert
channels.
Which of the following is the most effective way to protect the network of the company from an attacker
using Hping2 to scan his internal network?
A. Block ICMP type 13 messages
B. Block all outgoing traffic on port 21
C. Block all outgoing traffic on port 53
D. Block ICMP type 3 messages
Answer: A

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NO.11 You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company's Windows 2000-based network is
configured with Internet Security and Acceleration (ISA) Server 2000. You want to configure intrusion
detection on the server. You find that the different types of attacks on the Intrusion Detection tab page of
the IP Packet Filters Properties dialog box are disabled. What is the most likely cause?
A. The PPTP through ISA firewall check box on the PPTP tab page of the IP Packet Filters
Properties dialog box is not enabled.
B. The Enable IP routing check box on the General tab page of the IP Packet Filters Properties dialog box
is not selected.
C. The Log packets from Allow filters check box on the Packet Filters tab page of the IP Packet Filters
Properties dialog box is not enabled.
D. The Enable Intrusion detection check box on the General tab page of the IP Packet Filters Properties
dialog box is not selected.
Answer: D

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NO.12 John, a novice web user, makes a new E-mail account and keeps his password as "apple", his favorite
fruit. John's password is vulnerable to which of the following password cracking attacks?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Dictionary attack
B. Hybrid attack
C. Brute Force attack
D. Rule based attack
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.13 This is a Windows-based tool that is used for the detection of wireless LANs using the IEEE 802.11a,
802.11b, and 802.11g standards. The main features of these tools are as follows: -It displays the signal
strength of a wireless network, MAC address, SSID, channel details, etc. -It is commonly used for the
following purposes:
A. War driving
B. Detecting unauthorized access points
C. Detecting causes of interference on a WLAN
D. WEP ICV error tracking
E. Making Graphs and Alarms on 802.11 Data, including Signal Strength
Answer: D

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NO.14 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The office network is configured as an IPv6
network. You have to configure a computer with the IPv6 address, which is equivalent to an IPv4 publicly
routable address. Which of the following types of addresses will you choose?
A. Site-local
B. Global unicast
C. Local-link
D. Loopback
Answer: B

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NO.15 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. Your company has a Windows 2000based
network. You want to verify the connectivity of a host in the network. Which of the following utilities will you
use?
A. PING
B. TELNET
C. NETSTAT
D. TRACERT
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following file systems is designed by Sun Microsystems?
A. NTFS
B. CIFS
C. ZFS
D. ext2
Answer: C

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NO.17 SSH is a network protocol that allows data to be exchanged between two networks using a secure
channel. Which of the following encryption algorithms can be used by the SSH protocol?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Blowfish
B. IDEA
C. DES
D. RC4
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.18 Which of the following tools performs comprehensive tests against web servers for multiple items,
including over 6100 potentially dangerous files/CGIs?
A. Dsniff
B. Snort
C. Nikto
D. Sniffer
Answer: C

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NO.19 Ryan, a malicious hacker submits Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) exploit code to the Website of Internet
forum for online discussion. When a user visits the infected Web page, code gets automatically executed
and Ryan can easily perform acts like account hijacking, history theft etc.
Which of the following types of Cross-Site Scripting attack Ryan intends to do?
A. Document Object Model (DOM)
B. Non persistent
C. SAX
D. Persistent
Answer: D

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NO.20 Victor works as a network administrator for DataSecu Inc. He uses a dual firewall Demilitarized
Zone (DMZ) to insulate the rest of the network from the portions that is available to the Internet.
Which of the following security threats may occur if DMZ protocol attacks are performed?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Attacker can perform Zero Day attack by delivering a malicious payload that is not a part of the
intrusion detection/prevention systems guarding the network.
B. Attacker can gain access to the Web server in a DMZ and exploit the database.
C. Attacker managing to break the first firewall defense can access the internal network without breaking
the second firewall if it is different.
D. Attacker can exploit any protocol used to go into the internal network or intranet of the com pany
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.21 Adam works as a Security Analyst for Umbrella Inc. He is performing real-time traffic analysis on IP
networks using Snort. Adam is facing problems in analyzing intrusion data. Which of the following
software combined with Snort can Adam use to get a visual representation of intrusion data?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Basic Analysis and Security Engine (BASE)
B. sguil
C. KFSensor
D. OSSIM
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.22 Which of the following statements are true about snort?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It develops a new signature to find vulnerabilities.
B. It detects and alerts a computer user when it finds threats such as buffer overflows, stealth port scans,
CGI attacks, SMB probes and NetBIOS queries, NMAP and other port scanners, well-known backdoors
and system vulnerabilities, and DDoS clients.
C. It encrypts the log file using the 256 bit AES encryption scheme algorithm.
D. It is used as a passive trap to record the presence of traffic that should not be found on a network, such
as NFS or Napster connections.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.23 Which of the following can be applied as countermeasures against DDoS attacks?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Limiting the amount of network bandwidth.
B. Blocking IP address.
C. Using LM hashes for passwords.
D. Using Intrusion detection systems.
E. Using the network-ingress filtering.
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.24 Sasha wants to add an entry to your DNS database for your mail server. Which of the following types of
resource records will she use to accomplish this.?
A. ANAME
B. SOA
C. MX
D. CNAME
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which of the following tools are used to determine the hop counts of an IP packet?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. TRACERT
B. Ping
C. IPCONFIG
D. Netstat
Answer: A,B

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NO.26 Which of the following methods is a behavior-based IDS detection method?
A. Knowledge-based detection
B. Protocol detection
C. Statistical anomaly detection
D. Pattern matching detection
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which of the following Web attacks is performed by manipulating codes of programming languages
such as SQL, Perl, Java present in the Web pages?
A. Command injection attack
B. Code injection attack
C. Cross-Site Request Forgery
D. Cross-Site Scripting attack
Answer: B

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NO.28 Peter works as a Technical Representative in a CSIRT for SecureEnet Inc. His team is called to
investigate the computer of an employee, who is suspected for classified data theft. Suspect's computer
runs on Windows operating system. Peter wants to collect data and evidences for further analysis. He
knows that in Windows operating system, the data is searched in pre-defined steps for proper and
efficient analysis. Which of the following is the correct order for searching data on a Windows based
system?
A. Volatile data, file slack, registry, memory dumps, file system, system state backup, interne t traces
B. Volatile data, file slack, file system, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, interne t traces
C. Volatile data, file slack, internet traces, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, file system
D. Volatile data, file slack, registry, system state backup, internet traces, file system, memory dumps
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which of the following is the default port for Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)?
A. TCP port 110
B. TCP port 25
C. TCP port 80
D. UDP port 161
Answer: D

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NO.30 You are the Network Administrator for a large corporate network. You want to monitor all network traffic
on your local network for suspicious activities and receive a notification when a possible attack is in
process. Which of the following actions will you take for this?
A. Enable verbose logging on the firewall
B. Install a network-based IDS
C. Install a DMZ firewall
D. Install a host-based IDS
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: GSNA
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Systems and Network Auditor)
Questions et réponses: 368 Q&As

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NO.1 You check performance logs and note that there has been a recent dramatic increase in the amount of
broadcast traffic. What is this most likely to be an indicator of?
A. Misconfigured router
B. DoS attack
C. Syn flood
D. Virus
Answer: B

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NO.2 John works as a contract Ethical Hacker. He has recently got a project to do security checking for
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to find out the operating system of the we-are-secure server in the
information gathering step. Which of the following commands will he use to accomplish the task? (Choose
two)
A. nc 208.100.2.25 23
B. nmap -v -O www.we-are-secure.com
C. nc -v -n 208.100.2.25 80
D. nmap -v -O 208.100.2.25
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 You work as a Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows Active
Directory-based single domain single forest network. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server
2003. The company's management has decided to provide laptops to its sales team members. These
laptops are equipped with smart card readers. The laptops will be configured as wireless network clients.
You are required to accomplish the following tasks: The wireless network communication should be
secured. The laptop users should be able to use smart cards for getting authenticated. In order to
accomplish the tasks, you take the following steps: Configure 802.1x and WEP for the wireless
connections. Configure the PEAP-MS-CHAP v2 protocol for authentication. What will happen after you
have taken these steps?
A. Both tasks will be accomplished.
B. The laptop users will be able to use smart cards for getting authenticated.
C. The wireless network communication will be secured.
D. None of the tasks will be accomplished.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You run the wc -c file1.txt command. If this command displays any error message, you want to store the
error message in the error.txt file. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish the task?
A. wc -c file1.txt >>error.txt
B. wc -c file1.txt 1>error.txt
C. wc -c file1.txt 2>error.txt
D. wc -c file1.txt >error.txt
Answer: C

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NO.5 Sarah works as a Web Developer for XYZ CORP. She is creating a Web site for her company. Sarah
wants greater control over the appearance and presentation of Web pages. She wants the ability to
precisely specify the display attributes and the appearance of elements on the Web pages. How will she
accomplish this?
A. Use the Database Design wizard.
B. Make two templates, one for the index page and the other for all other pages.
C. Use Cascading Style Sheet (CSS).
D. Make a template and use it to create each Web page.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following statements are true about locating rogue access points using WLAN discovery
software such as NetStumbler, Kismet, or MacStumbler if you are using a Laptop integrated with Wi-Fi
compliant MiniPCI card? (Choose two)
A. These tools can determine the rogue access point even when it is attached to a wired network.
B. These tools can determine the authorization status of an access point.
C. These tools cannot detect rogue access points if the victim is using data encryption.
D. These tools detect rogue access points if the victim is using IEEE 802.11 frequency bands.
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 You work as the Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Unix-based network. You
want to print the super block and block the group information for the filesystem present on a system.
Which of the following Unix commands can you use to accomplish the task?
A. e2fsck
B. dump
C. dumpe2fs
D. e2label
Answer: C

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NO.8 You work as a Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows Server 2008
network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest single
domain network. You have installed a Windows Server 2008 computer. You have configured auditing on
this server. The client computers of the company use the Windows XP Professional operating system.
You want to audit each event that is related to a user managing an account in the user database on the
computer where the auditing is configured. To accomplish the task, you have enabled the Audit account
management option on the server. Which of the following events can be audited by enabling this audit
option.?
A. Access to an Active Directory object
B. Change of password for a user account
C. Addition of a user account to a group
D. Creation of a user account
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.9 Which of the following is Microsoft's implementation of the file and application server for the Internet
and private intranets?
A. Internet Server Service (ISS)
B. Internet Server (IS)
C. WWW Server (WWWS)
D. Internet Information Server (IIS)
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is a wireless auditing tool that is used to pinpoint the actual physical location of
wireless devices in the network?
A. KisMAC
B. Ekahau
C. Kismet
D. AirSnort
Answer: B

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NO.11 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to use Kismet as a wireless sniffer to sniff the Weare-secure network.
Which of the following IEEE-based traffic can be sniffed with Kismet?
A. 802.11g
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11b
D. 802.11a
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.12 John works as a Security Professional. He is assigned a project to test the security of www.we-
are-secure.com. John wants to get the information of all network connections and listening ports in the
numerical form. Which of the following commands will he use?
A. netstat -e
B. netstat r
C. netstat -s
D. netstat an
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following tools works both as an encryption-cracking tool and as a keylogger?
A. Magic Lantern
B. KeyGhost Keylogger
C. Alchemy Remote Executor
D. SocketShield
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following statements about the traceroute utility are true?
A. It uses ICMP echo packets to display the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of
each gateway along the route to the remote host.
B. It records the time taken for a round trip for each packet at each router.
C. It is an online tool that performs polymorphic shell code attacks.
D. It generates a buffer overflow exploit by transforming an attack shell code so that the new attack shell
code cannot be recognized by any Intrusion Detection Systems.
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 George works as an office assistant in Soft Well Inc. The company uses the Windows Vista operating
system. He wants to disable a program running on a computer. Which of the following Windows Defender
tools will he use to accomplish the task?
A. Allowed items
B. Quarantined items
C. Options
D. Software Explorer
Answer: D

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NO.16 A Web developer with your company wants to have wireless access for contractors that come in to
work on various projects. The process of getting this approved takes time. So rather than wait, he has put
his own wireless router attached to one of the network ports in his department. What security risk does
this present?
A. None, adding a wireless access point is a common task and not a security risk.
B. It is likely to increase network traffic and slow down network performance.
C. This circumvents network intrusion detection.
D. An unauthorized WAP is one way for hackers to get into a network.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following allows the use of multiple virtual servers using different DNS names resolved by
the same IP address?
A. HTTP 1.1
B. JAVA
C. HTML
D. VPN
Answer: A

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NO.18 John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based
network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to forward all the kernel
messages to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1. Which of the following changes will he
perform in the syslog.conf file to accomplish the task?
A. kern.* @192.168.0.1
B. !*.* @192.168.0.1
C. !kern.* @192.168.0.1
D. *.* @192.168.0.1
Answer: A

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NO.19 You work as a Network Auditor for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows-based network. While
auditing the company's network, you are facing problems in searching the faults and other entities that
belong to it. Which of the following risks may occur due to the existence of these problems?
A. Residual risk
B. Inherent risk
C. Secondary risk
D. Detection risk
Answer: D

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NO.20 You work as the Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Unix-based network. You
want to set some terminal characteristics and environment variables. Which of the following Unix
configuration files can you use to accomplish the task?
A. /etc/sysconfig/routed
B. /proc/net
C. /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-interface
D. /etc/sysconfig/init
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: BCCPP
Nom d'Examen: Blue Coat (Blue Coat Certified Proxy Professional, V.3.5.1)
Questions et réponses: 94 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are true? (Choose all that apply)
(a)The SGOS object store utilizes a directory structure so that objects in cache can be accessed rapidly
(b)Information about a single object in cache be retrieved from the Management console or the
(c)There are two object caches, the object cache which resides on disk and the object cache which
resides in RAM
(d)The SGOS object store is separated by protocol (HTTP cache, FTP cache, etc.)
A.a, b and c only
B.a, c and d only
C.b, c and d only
D.All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following are true when attempting to deny access to file types?
A. MIME type objects are matched against the Content-type request header; File Extension objects are
matched against the GET response header; Apparent Data Type objects are matched against request
data.
B. MIME type objects are matched against the Content-type response header; File Extension objects are
matched against the GET request header; Apparent Data Type objects are matched against response
data.
C. MIME type objects are matched against the Content-encoding response header; File Extension objects
are matched against the GET request header; Apparent Data Type objects are matched against response
data.
D. MIME type objects are matched against the Content-type response header; File Extension objects are
matched against the GET request header; Apparent Data Type objects are matched against request data.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements are true about ProxySG Protocol Detection feature? (Choose all that
apply)
(a)Protocol detection is performed on the server's response.
(b)Protocol detection is performed on the client's request.
(c)Enabling Detect Protocol option will automatically enable early intercept attribute in proxy services.
(d)Protocol detection is performed by looking at the TCP port number.
A.a and b only
B.b and c only
C.c and d only
D.ALL of the above
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements are true about Reverse Proxy deployment?(Choose all that apply)
(a)Forwarding hosts in the forwarding file must be defined as "server" style
(b)Default-scheme in forwarding file is supported
(c)Protocol conversion between HTTPS <- ->HTTP are automatic
(d)ProxySG should be set with default DENY policy
A.a, b and c only
B.a, c and d only
C.b, c and d only
D.All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.5 url.regex=!\.html$ d\ DENY What is the effect of the above CPL code?
A. Deny any URL that ends with html
B. Deny any URL that does not end with html
C. Deny any URL that ends with htm or html
D. Deny any URL that does not end with htm or html
Answer: B

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NO.6 A cookie without an expire value will___
A. last until the client cleats cookies from the browser
B. last until the client closes the browser session
C. last until the client logs off
Answer: B

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NO.7 The ProxySG acts as both an ICAP client and ICAP server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.8 You can NOT use a self-signed certificate when intercepting SSL traffic.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following are obvious advantages of having a ProxySG deployed in a Reverse Proxy
environment? (Choose all that apply? (a)The ProxySG has built in DOS protection to guard the actual
web server from denial-ofservice attacks
(b)Increased performance with caching provides an improved Web Experience
(c)Consistent default behavior of cache expiration and validation directives
(d)SSL termination on ProxySG allow SSL offloading, therefore eliminating bottleneck on the web server
side.
A.All of the above
B.a, band c only
C.a, band d only
D.b, cand d only
Answer: C

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NO.10 What criterion is NOT used to determine location awareness of a ProxyClient
A. IP address range
B. Virtual NICs IP address range
C. The IP address of the closest AND concentrator
D. DNS server IP address
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following statements are true about dynamic bypass list? (Choose all that apply)
(a)Configured polices will not be enforced on client request if the request matches an entry in the bypass
list.
(b)Dynamic bypass entries are lost when ProxySG is restarted
(c)If request made to a site in a forwarding policy is in the bypass list, the site is inaccessible
(d)Dynamic bypass parameters can be configured on Management Console and CLI.
A.All of the above
B.a, b and c only
C.b, c and d only
D.a, c and d only
Answer: B

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NO.12 The Content-encoding header is used to declare the MIME type and compression method used in a
HTTP response.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which method of controlling downloads of certain file types works fastest on ProxySG?
A. Apparent Data Type
B. MIME Type
C. File extension
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following steps have to be performed to support Kerberos Authentication.? (Choose all that
apply)
(a)A virtual URL that resolves to the IP of the ProxySG.
(b)Registering the BCAAA as a Service Principal Name.
(c)Configuring IWA Realm.
(d)Configuring Explicit Proxy.
A.All of the above
B.None of the above
C.a, b and c only
D.b, c and d only
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following hostnames are NOT matched by the regular expression "www (0 9) (0-9)?
\ .foo\ .com")
A. www.foo.com
B. www01.foo.com
C. www1.foo.com
D. www11.foo.com
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: adwords-fundamentals
Nom d'Examen: Google (Google Search Fundamentals Exam Practice Test)
Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

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NO.1 Your client wants to use Google AdWords' ability to display ads in videos. How can you create a video
ad for your customer?
A. You'll need a video editing program, like QuickTime Pro, to edit and create video ads.
B. You'll insert the text into an ad template that Google AdWords will insert into the video ad.
C. Your video can be created in any program,but the output must be compatible with YouTube.
D. You must use the Display Ad Builder to create a video ad.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You have created four different ads for a client. The client is pleased, but wants to know how Google
AdWords selects which sponsored links ad to display. How does Google AdWords chooses the ad to
display?
A. The AdWords system shows each ad once before rotating to the next ad.
B. The manager of the ad must determine the orderand frequency of the ad to be displayed.
C. The AdWords system automatically rotates among the different ad variations and shows the
better-performing variation more.
D. The AdWords system shows each ad for 100 impressions and then rotates to the next ad.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Beth has created a Google AdWords account for her company but she is no longer interested in
managing the Google AdWords. She hires an SEO firm to manage the account and SEM for her.
How can the SEO firm now manage Beth's account?
A. The SEO firm will need to link Beth's account to their account.
B. The SEO firm will need to acquire Beth's account through the My Client Center program.
C. The SEO firm will need to create a new Google AdWords account in the My Client Center program.
D. The SEO firm will need Beth's account login information to login and manage the account as Beth
Answer: A

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NO.4 Deanna is new to Google AdWords and she's hired you to help her create an ad for her bakery.
She wants to make certain that only people in her city can actually see her ad - rather than
advertising for users in a different location. You tell Deanna that there are three location options for
Google AdWords. Which one of the following is NOT one of the three location options Deanna can use?
A. Region and city targeting
B. Customized targeting
C. Country targeting
D. Predictive targeting
Answer: D

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NO.5 Martha has created a video ad for her Google AdWords account. She would like to customize where
the video ad is displayed geographically. Which one of the following choices is NOT one of the
geographical customization choices Martha has for displaying her Google AdWords video ad?
A. Internationally
B. Globally
C. Locally
D. Nationally
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are managing a Google AdWords for your client. The client has informed you that they want their
ads to go on very specific Web pages in the Google Content Network. Which Google AdWords option
would allow you to specify what pages the advertisement should appear on?
A. Network devices setting
B. Exclusion tools setting
C. Web pages setting
D. Placement targeting setting
Answer: D

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NO.7 You're serving as a Google AdWords consultant for a company that sells electronics. Bob, your client,
is new to Web-based business sales and he's concerned with how long his ad will run. You explain to Bob
the concept of a daily budget and the monthly costs, but Bob is still worried and would like to just run his
ad for a short period of time. What's the smallest amount of time that you can configure an ad to run for
Bob?
A. 15 minutes per week
B. 48 hours per week
C. 1 hour per week
D. 24 hours per week
Answer: A

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NO.8 Google uses multiple approaches, such as IP addressing, to determine the language and location of
users searching for particular keywords. What term is given to the Google analysis of the search term,
such as Tampa doctors, to determine where a user may be originating their search from?
A. Google AdWords search analysis
B. Qualitative analysis
C. Quantitative analysis
D. Query parsing
Answer: D

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NO.9 John has created a new Google AdWords and he has elected to include the ad in the
Google Network. A few weeks later he decides that he longer wants to participate in the Google Network.
How can John opt out of the Google Network?
A. John can contact Google and ask them to disassociate his ads from the Google Network.
B. John can opt out of the network by deselecting the option to include the Google AdWords ad in the
Google Network.
C. John can opt out of the network through the Settings tab of the campaign page.
D. John cannot opt of the network - once he joins his account is attached to the program.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Amy is new to Google AdWords and she's curious about the policies Google requires for
participants and their ads. Which one of the following is NOT of the Google AdWords policy categories.?
A. Link policies
B. Editorial and format policies
C. Image policies
D. Content policies
Answer: C

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NO.11 Frank is managing a Google AdWords ad group for his travel agency. Frank wants to make certain that
his ad appears in Google when someone searches for Montana cabin rentals. Which one ofthe following
matching options would ensure that Frank's ad would appear when this exact phrase exclusively is used?
A. [Montana cabin rentals]
B. "Montana cabin rentals"
C. -Montana cabin rentals
D. Montana cabin rentals
Answer: A

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NO.12 Linda has a discount clothing store and she'd like to post Google AdWords advertisements for her
store. When she creates her ad which one of the follow advertisements would NOT be allowed by Google
AdWords?
A. Good Discounted Clothes
B. Fashion Clothes Online Here
C. Fashion 4U Here
D. No Clothes
Answer: C

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NO.13 Google does not allow double-serving advertisements. Which one of the following is the best
explanation of Google's double-serving policy?
A. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have ads across multiple accounts for the same or
similar businesses, or ads across multiple accounts triggered by the same or similar keywords.
B. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have more than one identical business
operating on more than one server.
C. Google does allow multiple accounts triggered by the same or similar keywords as long as the
advertisements direct the customers to a common Website.
D. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have competing ads for the same or similar
businesses.
Answer: A

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NO.14 What term is assigned to the concept of measuring your profit that you've made from advertising
compared to how much you've spent on that advertising?
A. ROI
B. Sunk costs
C. CTR
D. CPM
Answer: A

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NO.15 Nancy would like to create a display ad for the Google Content Network, but she doesn't have image
editing software. Which of the following is recommended for Nancy to create a display ad for the Google
Content Network?
A. Hire a designer to create the display ad.
B. Use the Display Ad Builder.
C. Use the Adobe Ad Builder.
D. Use a text ad.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Fred has created a phrase match keyword targeting for his Google AdWords ad. His phrase is used
car. Which one of the following examples of search phrases will allow Fred's ad to be displayed?
A. Car that's been used
B. Used and new car
C. Used toy car
D. Buy used car
Answer: D

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NO.17 You have elected to use the device platform targeting in your Google AdWords. How is the quality
score calculated for this feature?
A. The type of device you've elected to target affects how the quality score is calculated.
B. The type of operating system you've elected to target affects how the quality score is
calculated.
C. Quality scores are not calculated when a Google AdWords users elects to use content
placement.
D. The quality score is calculated the same as all Google AdWords ads: It's calculated using a variety of
factors and measures how relevant your keyword is to your ad group and to a user's search query.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Jeff is creating a mobile ad for his Website for the Google AdWords program. Which one of the following
options is allowed by Google AdWords for mobile users?
A. A call link so visitors can immediately call rather than visit the Website
B. A text link so visitors can send a text message to the advertiser
C. An ignore mobile ad option to hide the Google AdWords
D. A hide all images option to see just the Google AdWords text
Answer: A

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NO.19 Google wants to make certain that Google Content Network consultants understand where people are
spending their time online. Google has identified four categories where people spend their time online.
Which one of the following statements ranks Internet usage for Web users from smallest to largest
percentage of time online according to Google?
A. Commerce sites, content sites, communication sites, search sites
B. Search sites, commerce sites, content sites, communication sites
C. Communication sites, content sites, commerce sites, search sites
D. Content sites, communication sites, commerce sites, search sites
Answer: D

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NO.20 Jennifer has been notified that her ad was disapproved by Google. What tool can Jennifer use to
determine why the ad has NOT been approved by Google AdWords?
A. Keyword Review tool
B. AdWords Editor tool
C. Google AdWords ad tool
D. Disapproved Ads tool
Answer: D

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